2013年6月30日星期日

Cisco certification 648-232 exam training materials

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Exam Code: 648-232

Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco WebEx Solutions Design and Implementation)

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NO.1 Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Answer: C

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NO.2 The current WebEx audio solution requires all audio to flow through the PSTN. How does this
differ from cloud-connected audio?
A. Customers connect via a VPN.
B. Customers connect with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Customers connect through a direct IP connection.
D. Customers connect via a media gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas
and
take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Answer: B

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NO.5 How do you share data from Cisco TelePresence WebEx OneTouch?
A. The host must pass the ball.
B. The user must connect to the VGA cable to become the active presenter.
C. Only the host can share data.
D. TelePresence is an audio-only platform and data cannot be shared.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement is true about screenshot captures in Enterprise IM?
A. Screenshot captures are not supported in group, third-party, or web IM sessions.
B. Screen captures and file transfers can be done at any time throughout the web IM session.
C. Screen captures need to be done by a third party.
D. Only administration has the rights to capture screenshots.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature
allows
you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about Cisco Unified MeetingPlace personal conferences?
A. There are no recordings.
B. Only a web participant list is shown.
C. Participants are able to talk without the host present.
D. The audio session and web session will display on the participants list on the meeting room
interface.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference
system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: 640-916

Exam Name: Cisco (Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies)

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NO.1 Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. services layer
E. QoS marking
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.)
A. complexity
B. scalability
C. ease of management
D. resilience
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Answer: F

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NO.4 Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
F. Company 1
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directors
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 642-998

Exam Name: Cisco (Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing)

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NO.1 Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center?
(Choose
three.)
A. application performance
B. PCI compliance
C. cooling capacity
D. power capacity
E. space availability
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together?
A. LISP
B. FabricPath
C. vPC
D. OTV
Answer: C

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6. Which three features are included in Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Service
Appliance? (Choose three.)
A. configure Cisco UCS Manager
B. packet capture
C. configure virtual machine
D. filter and error scan
E. packet decode
Answer: B,D,E

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7. Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX
uplink
failure? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic pinning
B. port channel
C. RPVST
D. Equal-Cost Multipath
E. virtual port channel
F. static pinning
Answer: D,F

Cisco   642-998   642-998
8. What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?
A. OSPF route authentication
B. OSPF peer authentication
C. OSPF database exchange authentication
D. OSPF process authentication
Answer: A

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NO.3 What three characteristics are true regarding the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP)
inventory, assessment, and reporting toolkit? (Choose three.)
A. Identifies virtualized servers running under VMware
B. Provides comprehensive data analysis
C. Secure inventory via agent software on the target devices
D. Identifies heterogeneous environments consisting of Windows Server, Linux, Apple iOS
operating systems
E. Provides detailed assessment results for each migration scenario
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Ethernet
B. MPLS
C. FDDI
D. APPN/APPI
E. Token Ring
F. Frame Relay
Answer: B,F

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NO.5 Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4004
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2248T
E. Cisco Nexus 3064
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 100-101

Exam Name: Cisco (CCNA Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices 1 (ICND1))

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NO.1 The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The
workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its
own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the
requirements.
Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. seven 48-port hubs
D. seven 48-port switches
E. one router interface
F. seven router interfaces
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will
the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames
directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Answer: E

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NO.3 How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.
B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 644-068

Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced Routing and Switching for Field Engineers - ARSFE)

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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding Cisco WAAS application support is not true?
A. Cisco WAAS offers special protocol-level optimization forWindows Media Technologies over
RTSP . For this kind of optimization, a separate WAASlicense is required.
B. Cisco WAAS SSL optimization requires the core WAE to spoof the identity of the
server,andtherefore needs to have a local copy of the servercertificate and private key.
C. In order to benefit from the MAPI application optimizer, you haveto disable native Microsoft
Exchange/Outlook encryption.
D. CIFS application support requires a separate WAAS license.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three of the following statements are true regarding the design of a technical solution?
(Choose three.)
A. The SBA toolkit includes foundation design guides that focus on concepts asfoundationdesign
guides that show detailed configurations.
B. Numerous CVDs are available that provide all the information needed for a successful
deployment.
C. Examples of low-level design tools are the Cisco Power Calculator, the Cisco RackSpace
Calculator, and the Cisco DSP Calculator.
D. The technical solution has to be based on the previously defined architecture.
E. CVDs provide proven design of solutions that include only Cisco products, which
ensuressinglevendor
solutions.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Which two of the following are components of Cisco MediaNet that simplify network
assessment,
monitoring, and troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. MediaTrace
B. MediaPing,using real SSRC-ID
C. Traffic Simulator, based on ping
D. Traffic Simulator, based on IP SLA
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which two of the following statements correctly describe service modules available for the
3560-X
and 3750-X switches? (Choose two.)
A. The C3KX-SM-10G service module offers MACsec encryption at line rate.
B. The C3KX-NM 10GT service module offers two 10 Gigabit Ethernet SFTP+ ports.
C. TheC3KX-NM-10G and the C3KX-NM-10GT service modules provide flexible netflow.
D. The C3KX-SM-10G service module provides flexible netflow.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two of the following statements are true regarding positioning of the Cisco Catalyst
6500
series verses the Cisco Nexus 7000 series? (Choose two.)
A. TheCatalyst 6500 series is the better choice if L2VPN is required.
B. Both, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 series and the Cisco Nexus 7000 series support NX-OS
capabilities.
C. TheCisco Nexus 7000 series is the better choice if rich WAN services are required.
D. The Cisco Catalyst 6500 series is the better choice if the core is outside the data center.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which two of the following statements are true regarding placement of WAAS? (Choose two.)
A. All WAEappliance models support inline deployment. Fail-to-wire capabilities ensure that traffic
continues to flow through the system in case of ahardwareor software failure.
B. Cisco WAAS Express supports off-path interception only via WCCP v2 interception.
C. WAEappliances do not support 802.1Q.
D. Off- path interception of traffic can be achieved by policy-based routing or WCCP v2
interception.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which two of the following statements correctly describe switching? (Choose two.)
A. A multilayer switch operates up to Layer 4 of the OSI network model.
B. A Layer 2 switch operates up to the data link layer of the OSI network model.
C. A dual-layer switch operates at the data link and network layers of the OSI network model.
D. A Layer 3 switch operates up to the transport layer of the OSI network model.
E. A dual-layer switch operates at the transport and data link layers of the OSI network model.
Answer: B,E

Cisco original questions   644-068   644-068

NO.8 Which three of the following are valid steps when building an architectural roadmap for a
customer? (Choose three.)
A. Analyst collected data, identifypotentialsavings, and develop TCO and ROI.
B. Identityconfigurationflaws onindividualdevices.
C. Understand the business objectives, current environment, and pain points of the customer.
D. Assess the current infrastructure, financial data, and operational management capabilities.
E. Deliverbusiness case documentation, detailed technical solution scenarios, and TCO report.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.9 Which three of the following are recommended steps for the design phase? (Choose three.)
A. Proof of concept
B. High-level design
C. Competitive market analysis
D. Gap analysis
E. Low-level design
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Cisco MediaNet provides multimedia optimization services in a Cisco Borderless Network.
Which
two of the following statements correctly describe Cisco MediaNet? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MediaNet Mediatrace allows real-time troubleshooting by providing details about
everyhop of the end-to-end path of your mediastream.
B. Cisco MediaNet supports only SNMP traps but not syslog messages.
C. Cisco MediaNet Performance Monitor collects performance metrics of video traffic as
flexiblenetflow records which can be processed by any netflowcollector, such as Cisco Prime
Assurance Manager.
D. When using PVDM3 on Cisco ISR G2,video streams of the same type can be locally
mixedwithin the router. Video transcoding services require adedicated video MCU.
Answer: B,C

Cisco   644-068   644-068   644-068   644-068

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Exam Code: 156-215

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Administration NGX)

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NO.1 . Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have
created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Why?
A . Anna has forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
B . Users must use SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.
C . Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
D . Anna checked the "cache password on desktop" option in Global Properties.
Answer : C

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NO.2 . Larry is the Security Administrator for the CodeMore software-development company. To isolate the
corporate network from the developers' network, Larry installs an internal Security Gateway. Larry wants
to optimize the performance of this Gateway.
Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the Gateway's performance?
A . Remove unused Security Policies from Policy Packages.
B . Use domain objects in rules, where possible.
C . Clear all Global Properties check boxes, and use explicit rules.
D . Put the least-used rules at the top of the Rule Base.
Answer : A

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NO.3 . MegaCorp's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a
central license for one remote Security Gateway. You must request a central license:
A . using the remote Gateway's IP address. Attach the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.
B . using your SmartCenter Server's IP address. Attach the license to the remote Gateway via
SmartUpdate.
C . using the remote Gateway's IP address. Apply the license locally with the cplic put command.
D . for the Gateways' IP addresses. Apply the licenses on the SmartCenter Server with the cprlic put
command.
Answer : B

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NO.4 . You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object "internal-networks"
includes networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume "Accept ICMP requests" is enabled as before last
in the Global Properties.
A . dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule.
B . dropped by the last implicit rule.
C . dropped by rule 0.
D . accepted by rule 1.
Answer : D

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NO.5 . What do you configure to launch an application when certain traffic goes through certain rules?
A . SNMP trap alert script
B . User-defined alert script
C . Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts.
D . Pop-up alert script
Answer : B

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NO.6 . Which VPN-1 NGX feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of
the Security Policy without changing object configurations?
A . fwm dbexport/fwm dbimport
B . Database Revision Control
C . Policy Package management
D . upgrade_export/upgrade_import
Answer : C

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NO.7 . What do you use to view a VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway's status, including CPU use, amount of
virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A . SmartUpdate
B . SmartView Monitor
C . SmartView Tracker
D . SmartView Status
Answer : B

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NO.8 . You are working in a large hospital, together with three other Security Administrators. How do you
use SmartConsole to check changes to rules or object properties other administrators made?:
A . Eventia Monitor
B . Eventia Tracker
C . SmartView Tracker
D . SmartView Monitor
Answer : C

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NO.9 . In SmartDashboard, you configure 45 MB as the required free hard-disk space to accommodate logs.
What can you do to keep old log files, when free space falls below 45 MB?
A . Do nothing. The SmartCenter Server archives old logs to another directory.
B . Use FTP to send the logs to another server.
C . Use the fwm logexport command to export the old log files to other location.
D . Define a secondary SmartCenter Server as a log server, to transfer the old logs.
Answer : B

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NO.10 . All VPN-1 NGX Security Servers can perform User authentication with the exception of one. Which of
the Security Servers cannot perform User authentication?
A . FTP
B . HTTP
C . SMTP
D . RLOGIN
Answer : C

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NO.11 . What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A . Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.
B . Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
C . Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D . Place a static route on the firewall from the valid IP address to the internal web server.
Answer : A

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NO.12 . Assuming the appropriate SmartView Monitor settings have been selected in SmartDashboard, how
do you use SmartView Monitor to compile data for packet size distribution for your company's Internet
activity during production hours? By:
A . selecting the "Traffic" view in SmartView Monitor to generate graphs showing the packet sizes.
B . selecting the "Tunnels" view, and generating a report on the statistics
C . configuring a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when large packets pass through the
Gateway
D . viewing total packets passed through the Security Gateway
Answer : A

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NO.13 . Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change
orders, and check order status.
You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web servers were protected
from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks.
The penetration testing indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable.
You have enabled every protection in the Web Intelligence branch, configured the protections to apply to
all HTTP traffic, and installed the Security Policy.
What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability?
A . Check the "Products > Web Server" box on the host node objects representing your Web servers.
B . The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
C . Configure a URI to strip Script tags from HTTP requests, and use it in a rule allowing HTTP traffic to
the web servers.
D . Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.
Answer : C

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NO.14 . When you find a suspicious connection from a problematic host, you want to block everything from
that whole network, not just the host. You want to block this for an hour, but you do not want to add any
rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?
A . Create a "FW SAM" rule in SmartView Monitor.
B . Create a "FW SAM" rule in SmartView Tracker > Tools menu.
C . Select "block intruder" from the Tools menu in the SmartView Tracker.
D . Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.
Answer : D

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NO.15 . You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker. How can you
see the addresses you have blocked?
A . Run fw sam M ij all on the gateway.
B . Run fwm blocked_view.
C . In SmartView Status click the Blocked Intruder tab.
D . In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab, and the actively blocked connections display.
Answer : A

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NO.16 Which type of VPN-1 NGX Security Server does not provide User Authentication?
A . HTTP Security Server
B . SMTP Security Server
C . HTTPS Security Server
D . NNTP Security Server
Answer : B

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NO.17 . There is a Web server behind your perimeter Security Gateway. You need to protect the server from
network attackers, who create scripts that force your Web server to send user credentials or identities to
other Web servers. Which box do you check in the SmartDashboard Web Intelligence tab?
A . Command Injection protection
B . SQL Injection protection
C . HTTP protocol inspection protection
D . Cross Site Scripting protection
Answer : D

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NO.18 . After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on
your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped in the due
anti-spoofing protections.
Which of the following is the most likely cause
A . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is checked. The topology on the
DMZ interface is set to "Internal Network defined by IP and Mask". Uncheck the Global Properties setting
"Translate destination on client side".
B . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is unchecked. The topology on the
DMZ interface is set to "Internal Network defined by IP and Mask". Check the Global Properties setting
"Translate destination on client side".
C . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is unchecked. The topology on the
external interface is set to "Others +". Change topology to "External"
D . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is checked. The topology on the
external interface is set to "External". Change topology to "Others +".
Answer : B

CheckPoint   156-215 demo   156-215   156-215 certification training

NO.19 . VPN-1 NGX uses ___________ to retrieve the Interface Name, IP Address, and Network Mask when
an administrator clicks the GET button in the Interfaces tab of an Externally Managed VPN Gateway
object.
A . ioctl
B . Control Connection
C . SNMP
D . URI
Answer : C

CheckPoint   156-215 demo   156-215   156-215 certification training

NO.20 You are a security consultant for a hospital. You are asked to create some type of authentication rule on
the VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway, to allow doctors to update patients' records via HTTP from various
workstations. Which authentication method should you use?
A . User Authentication
B . SecureID Authentication
C . Client Authentication
D . LDAP Authentication
Answer : A

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Exam Code: 156-315.65

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Expert NGX R65)

156-315.65 (Check Point Certified Expert NGX R65) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/156-315.65.html


NO.1 What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. Get all Gateway Data
B. Reboot gateway
C. Preinstall verifier
D. Fetch sync status
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are a Security Administrator preparing to deploy a new HFA (Hotfix Accumulator) to ten Security
Gateways at five geographically separated locations. What is the BEST method to implement this HFA?
A. Send a Certified Security Engineer to each site to perform the update
B. Use SmartUpdate to install the packages to each of the Security Gateways remotely
C. Use a SSH connection to SCP the HFA to each Security Gateway. Once copied locally, initiate a
remote installation command and monitor the installation progress with SmartView Monitor.
D. Send a CDROM with the HFA to each location and have local personnel install it
Answer: B

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NO.3 What port is used for communication to the UserCenter with SmartUpdate?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. TCP 8080
D. CPMI
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.4 You are running the license_upgrade tool on your SecurePlatform Gateway. Which of the following
can you NOT do with the upgrade tool?
A. Simulate the license-upgrade process.
B. View the licenses in the SmartUpdate License Repository.
C. Perform the actual license-upgrade process.
D. View the status of currently installed licenses.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Why should the upgrade_export configuration file (.tgz) be deleted after you complete the import
process?
A. It will prevent a future successful upgrade_export since the .tgz file cannot be overwritten.
B. It will conflict with any future upgrades run from SmartUpdate.
C. SmartUpdate will start a new installation process if the machine is rebooted.
D. It contains your security configuration, which could be exploited.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of these components does NOT require a VPN-1 NGX R65 license?
A. SmartConsole
B. Check Point Gateway
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching
Answer: A

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NO.7 What action can be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. remote_uninstall_verifier
B. upgrade_export
C. mds_backup
D. cpinfo
Answer: D

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NO.8 You plan to migrate an NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 SmartCenter Server on Windows to
VPN-1 NGX R65. You also plan to upgrade four VPN-1 Pro Gateways at remote offices, and one local
VPN-1 Pro Gateway at your company's headquarters. The SmartCenter Server configuration must be
migrated. What is the correct procedure to migrate the configuration?
A. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD on the SmartCenter Server, select "Upgrade".
2. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
3. Reinstall all gateways using NGX R65 and install a policy.
B. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD in the SmartCenter Server, select "Export".
2. Install VPN-1 NGX R65 on a new PC using the option "Installation using imported configuration"
3. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
4. Upgrade software on all five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
C. 1. Copy the $FWDIR\conf directory from the SmartCenter Server.
2. Save directory contents to another file server.
3. Uninstall the SmartCenter Server, and install a new SmartCenter Server.
4. Move the saved directory contents to $FWDIR\conf replacing the default installation files.
5. Reinstall all gateways using VPN-1 NGX R65 and install a Security Policy.
D. 1. Upgrade the five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
2. Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, using the NGX R65 CD.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
A. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he en tir e contents of the CD are copied to the packages
directory on the selected remote Security Gateway.
B. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he en tir e con t en t s o f t he CD a r e cop i ed t o t he Package
Repository on the SmartCenter Server.
C. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he se l ec t ed package i s cop i ed t o t he packages d ir ec t o r y
on the selected remote Security Gateway.
D. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he se l ec t ed package i s cop i ed t o t he Package R epos it o r y
on the SmartCenter Server.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65 test questions

NO.10 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A. VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
B. VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
C. VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
D. None, all versions require a license upgrade
Answer: B

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NO.11 What tools CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. cpinfo
B. SecurePlatform Web UI
C. Nokia Voyager
D. snapshot
Answer: D

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NO.12 If a SmartUpdate upgrade or distribution operation fails on SecurePlatfom, how is the system
recovered?
A. SecurePlatform will reboot and automatically revert to the last snapshot version prior to upgrade.
B. The Administrator must remove the rpm packages manually, and reattempt the upgrade.
C. The Administrator can only revert to a previously created snapshot (if there is one) with the command
cprinstall snapshot <object name> <filename>.
D. The Administrator must reinstall the last version via the command cprinstall revert <object name> <file
name>.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What physical machine must have access to the UserCenter public IP when checking for new
packages with SmartUpdate?
A. VPN-1 Security Gateway getting the new upgrade package
B. SmartUpdate installed SmartCenter Server PC
C. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
D. SmartUpdate GUI PC
Answer: D

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NO.14 You want to upgrade an NG with Application Intelligence R55 Security Gateway running on
SecurePlatform to VPN-1 NGX R65 via SmartUpdate. Which package(s) is(are) needed in the Repository
prior to upgrade?
A. SecurePlatform NGX R65 package
B. VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 package
C. SecurePlatform and VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 packages
D. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Power/UTM packages
Answer: A

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NO.15 Your current VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 stand-alone VPN-1 Pro Gateway and
SmartCenter Server runs on SecurePlatform. You plan to implement VPN-1 NGX R65 in a distributed
environment, where the new machine will be the SmartCenter Server, and the existing machine will be the
VPN-1 Pro Gateway only. You need to migrate the NG with AI R55 SmartCenter Server configuration,
including licensing.
How do you handle licensing for this NGX R65 upgrade?
A. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new
central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license also licensed to the new SmartCenter Server's IP address.
B. Leave the current license on the gateway to be upgraded during the software upgrade. Purchase a
new license for the VPN-1 NGX R65 SmartCenter Server.
C. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the existing gateway machine's IP address.
Request a new local license for the NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway using the new server's IP address.
D. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new
central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license for the existing gateway server's IP address.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Concerning these products: SecurePlatform, VPN-1 Pro Gateway, UserAuthority Server, Nokia OS,
UTM-1, Eventia Reporter, and Performance Pack, which statement is TRUE?
A. All but the Nokia OS can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
B. All but Performance Pack can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
C. All can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
D. All but the UTM-1 can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Choose all correct statements. SmartUpdate, located on a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server, allows
you to:
(1) Remotely perform a first time installation of VPN-1 NGX on a new machine
(2) Determine OS patch levels on remote machines
(3) Update installed Check Point and any OPSEC certified software remotely
(4) Update installed Check Point software remotely
(5) Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products
(6) Centrally manage licenses
A. 4, 5, & 6
B. 2, 4, 5, & 6
C. 1 & 4
D. 1, 3, 4, & 6
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are using SmartUpdate to fetch data and perform a remote upgrade of an NGX Security Gateway.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. If SmartDashboard is open during package upload and upgrade, the upgrade will fail.
B. A remote installation can be performed without the SVN Foundation package installed on a remote NG
with Application Intelligence Security Gateway
C. SmartUpdate can query the SmartCenter Server and VPN-1 Gateway for product information
D. SmartUpdate can query license information running locally on the VPN-1 Gateway
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning contract verification?
A. Your contract file is stored on the User Center and fetched by the Gateway as needed.
B. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the SmartCenter Server.
C. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the Gateway.
D. Your contract file is stored on the SmartCenter Server and downloaded to the Security Gateway.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
A. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he se l ec t ed package i s
copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway but the installation IS
NOT performed.
B. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he S m a rt U pda t e w i za r d
walks the Administrator through a Distributed Installation.
C. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he se l ec t ed package i s
copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway and the installation IS
performed.
D. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay
the selected package is
copied from the CDROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS
performed.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following ports is used by CPMI to communicate between Multi-Domain Management
with Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 264
C. TCP port 18191
D. TCP port 18190
Answer: D

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NO.2 A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.3 Where do the Global Policy database files reside in an MDS environment?
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $MDSDIR/database
C. $MDSDIR/conf/mdsdb
D. $MDSDIR/conf
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A

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NO.5 All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B

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NO.6 What information can NOT be obtained from the mdsstat output?
A. Hostname of the MDS
B. Up / down status
C. IP address of the CMA
D. PID number FWD
Answer: A

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NO.7 Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D

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NO.8 When a NOC firewall separates the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS machine and the
MDG (as shown below), what must be done to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?
Modify the NOC Security Gateway Rule Base to allow:
A. RPC traffic for the MDG.
B. CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
C. UDP traffic for the MDG.
D. CPMI traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of
Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1
system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is not
recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1 environment.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but
has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D

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NO.12 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. $FWDIR/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
B. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/mds.elg and /var/opt/CPmds-R71/log/mds.log
C. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
D. $CPDIR/log/debug.elg
Answer: B

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NO.13 Upon boot, where is the script for the automatic start of the MDS processes located?
A. /etc/init.d
B. /var/init.d
C. etc/init.D
D. var/etc/init.d
Answer: A

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NO.14 When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B

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NO.15 On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R71 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which one of the processes runs on the MDS Level?
A. fwm mds
B. fgd
C. iked
D. vpnd
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS.?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A

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NO.18 What directory is shared between MDS and CMA?
A. $FWDIR/log
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $FWDIR/bin
D. $FWDIR/conf
Answer: C

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NO.19 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. fwm.log
B. mds.error
C. mds.log
D. fwm.elg
Answer: C

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NO.20 What directory would you find all the configuration files related to the CMA "Customer_1"?
A. /opt/CPmds-R71/Customer_1/
B. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/conf
C. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/fw1/conf
D. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/
Answer: A

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