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Exam Code: LOT-915

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution)

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LOT-915 (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/LOT-915.html

NO.1 Which of the following options are advantages of using Lotus OneUI for a portal theme?
A. Keyboard accessibility with hover effects, also providing focus effects or equivalent facilitation.
B. The code base is tested for stability, accessibility, and bidirectionality in multiple browsers.
C. Every page is enforced to look the same regardless of content, disallowing different browsers to make
the pages look different under any circumstance or user input.
D. A and B are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.2 IBM Rational Application Developer provides an easy-to-use wizard for creating portlets. What options
best describes the portlet types that you can use while creating JSR 286-compliant portlets?
A. Basic, Empty, and Faces
B. Basic, Faces, and IBM Struts Portlet Framework
C. Basic, Faces, and Spring Portlet MVC Framework
D. Faces, IBM Struts Portlet Framework, and Spring Portlet MVC Framework
Answer: A

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NO.3 A remote portlet is integrated into a portal implementation using WSRP. What new WSRP 2.0 feature
is enabled in WebSphere Portal V7.0 for sharing parameters with other portlets without wiring the
producer and consumer portlet?
A. Event operations
B. Cookie handling
C. Resource serving
D. Public render parameters
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a Web 2.0 theme, which of the available REST services only allow for read access to the model?
A. Layout model
B. Portlet model
C. Content model
D. Navigation model
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which option best describes how JSR 286-compliant portlets and widgets interact with each other?
A. Portlets and widgets cannot interact with each other.
B. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters and events.
C. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters.
D. widgets and portlets can interact by using events.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has requirements to remotely search user profiles based on attributes of the profile using
web services. How can this task be accomplished in WebSphere Portal?
A. By means of the remote portal search service
B. By means of the remote PUMA SPI REST service
C. By means of the remote virtual member manager service
D. By means of the user repository APIs and wrap web services around API calls.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is NOT a functionality provided by IBM Rational Application
Developer?
A. Wizards for creating portlets and portlet applications
B. WebDav client for working with Page Builder 2 theme
C. Ability to deploy portlets on a local WebSphere Portal server
D. Ability to deploy portlets on a remote WebSphere Portal server
Answer: B

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NO.8 Evan wants to develop a portlet to act as a target using Click-to-Action. He wants to develop a
client-side click-to-action handler. Which best describes the ways that he can get the source data
submitted by the source portlet?
A. He can retrieve the source form and the input inside from the page Document Object Model.
B. He can retrieve the source data from the window.ibm.portal.c2a.event.value global variable.
C. Either of the above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What best describes the portal model REST services that are now offered with WebSphere Portal
V7.0?
A. Portlet model, content model, navigational model
B. Portlet model, content model, navigational model, wire model
C. Portlet model, content model, navigational model, user profile
D. Layout model, portlet model, content model, navigational model, wire model, user profile
Answer: D

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NO.10 A site needs to be created within portal with its own title, user repository, default content, and branding.
What single portlet is provided for creating a site within portal?
A. Content Authoring portlet
B. Theme Customizer portlet
C. Virtual Portal Manager portlet
D. New Site Creation Wizard portlet
Answer: D

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NO.11 John has developed a custom step-up handler. He has implemented the two methods init() and
establishAuthLevel() of the StepUpAuthHandler interface. What is the outcome of the method
establishAuthLevel() returning null?
A. A null pointer exception is thrown.
B. The browser is redirected to the portal login page.
C. The browser displays the HTTP error 403 Forbidden.
D. The authentication level is assumed to be successfully established.
Answer: D

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NO.12 The IBM Lotus Connections portlets provide access to collaboration and social networking features
from Lotus Connections, such as Activities and Blogs. Which portlets are available from the built-in Lotus
Connections portlets package?
A. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Connections, Profiles
B. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Connections, Profiles, Ratings
C. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Tag cloud, Profiles
D. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Profiles, Ratings
Answer: C

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NO.13 From what source does the Page Builder theme instantiate drag-and-drop functionality in terms of
portlets?
A. The <dnd:drag/> and <dnd:drop/> tags.
B. The theme Default.jsp sets parameters for the ibmPortalConfig object that define the drag-and-drop
behaviors for dragging portlets.
C. The Page Builder theme does not support drag-and-drop for portlets.
D. The theme Default.jsp instantiates drag-and-drop functionality by means of loading ibmCSA.js and
calling instantiateDrag().
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following statements describes the value of the Vendor variable from the following portlet
code?
Profile p = (Profile) portletRequest.getAttribute(PortletRequest.CCPP_PROFILE);
String vendor = p.getAttribute("Vendor").toString();
A. It contains the name of the vendor of the portal server.
B. It contains the name of the vendor of the client browser or device.
C. It contains the value of the configuration key "vendor" for the Profile configuration service.
D. It contains the value of the "vendor" attribute for an identified or authenticated user, or null for an
anonymous user.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Aside from normal steps for deploying portlets to a page, what additional step, if any, is necessary to
configure a portlet using the Struts MVC framework and a portlet using the JavaServer Faces framework
to the same portal page?
A. Server-side aggregation must be forced on a page
B. Both portlets must comply with the JSR286 Portlet Specification
C. No additional steps are required
D. Framework JAR files must be added to WebSphere Application Server shared libraries
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-172

Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Program management )

000-172 (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Program management ) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-172.html

NO.1 Once the discovery map is done and the process diagram view is generated, any updates made in
the process diagram view must be verified and validated in the discovery map view.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.2 A big automobile manufacturer is mapping their high level process in IBM BPM Blueprint. Select
the correct list of milestones that makes the most sense (consider both logical sequence of the
milestone, as well as the best practice naming convention). ?
A. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Ship the
car through a preferred vendor
B. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble components; 3. Perform rework if it fails quality
inspection; 4. Product Shipment
C. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Perform rework if it fails
quality inspection; 4. Ship the car through a preferred vendor
D. 1. Procurement of Components; 2. Assembly of Components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Product
Shipment
Answer: D

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NO.3 Based on IBM BPM Blueprint best practices, while documenting activity details, the Business
Owner role is generally:
A. the business Unit Manager who runs the business
B. the person who is accountable for that particular process
C. the person who has the highest level of understanding of the process
D. the BPM lead who is responsible for implementing business process management
Answer: B

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NO.4 "Escalations" are used in WebSphere Lombardi Edition modeling to:
A. automate processes by using non-human tasks
B. add a level of sophistication to the process model
C. improve the process by solving problematic tasks
D. ensure metrics relating to process cycle times are met
Answer: D

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
Select the option that best describes the process in the diagram?
A. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body.
Once the doors are assembled, the tires and bumpers are fitted to the body of the car. Quality
inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
B. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires and the bumpers to the body of the car. When all the
above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors perform inspection.
C. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. When all the above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors
perform inspection.
D. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. Quality inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M43

Exam Name: IBM (IBM SUT Intermediate Level Technical Sales Mastery Test V1.0)

000-M43 (IBM SUT Intermediate Level Technical Sales Mastery Test V1.0) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-M43.html

NO.1 Assume there is a company using SUT with 1 Headquarter and 2 locations each in Europe, America
and Asia. In each site there are 100 subscribers and there is one PBX and one PSTN Gateway. In the
Headquarter, there is a Media Server for Announcements and Conferencing. Each subscriber has a SUT
Client and a Desk phone. Which of the answers below would match to a best practice numbering plan
configuration?
A. One common numbering plan and ten private numbering plans.
B. One common numbering plan and nine private numbering plans.
C. One common numbering plan and six private numbering plans.
D. One common numbering plan and three private numbering plans.
E. Three common numbering plans and three private numbering plans.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is correct regarding SUT configurations?
A. There is no conference server available in the small SUT configuration, only in the large SUT
configuration.
B. Besides the Sametime Server, a small SUT configuration needs one single server while a large SUT
configuration needs three servers.
C. One media server is required per location.
D. The small SUT configuration uses one server for TAS and Media Server.
E. A and D
Answer: D

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NO.3 The following is true of a business group (BG)?
A. Each BG has at least one common numbering plan (CNP).
B. Each BG has at least one private numbering plan (PNP).
C. There is no geographical boundary for a BG.
D. A and B
E. B and C
Answer: E

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NO.4 Why is it advisable to have at least one PNP for SUT subscribers and a separate PNP and endpoint for
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A. It allows Display Number Modification (DNM) rules to be created separately for subscribers calls to to
the PBX, and incoming calls from the PBX.
B. It allows digits to be added/deleted for the call coming from the PBX.
C. SUT subscribers needs extra attention during configuration.
D. A and B
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are mandatory parameters that need to be adjusted at both end points of a SIP trunk?
A. The MTU size.
B. The preferred codec.
C. The Music On Hold number.
D. The target IP address and the port number.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-R17

Exam Name: IBM (IBM SurePOS 700 Series Models 7x3 Technical Mastery)

000-R17 (IBM SurePOS 700 Series Models 7x3 Technical Mastery) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-R17.html

NO.1 What are the two search categories available in the Knowledgebase database on the RSS Web site?
(Choose two.)
A. IBM information
B. SurePOS information
C. Point of Sale information
D. Retail Systems information
E. Self-Service Solution information
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 On which model is an 80GB hard disk drive and a CD/DVD standard?
A. S83
B. C83
C. S43
D. C43
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two IBM SurePOS models ship standard with a hard disk drive? (Choose two.)
A. SurePOS C models
B. SurePOS E models
C. SurePOS 720 models
D. SurePOS 740 models
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which two types of devices cannot be auto-sensed by the diagnostics tool? (Choose two.)
A. USB devices
B. fiscal devices
C. RS-232 devices
D. RS-485 devices
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which two standard features do all SurePOS 7x3 models have in common.? (Choose two.)
A. dual video
B. hard disk drive
C. CD/DVD combo drive
D. 512 MB DDR2 base memory
E. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) 0/1 technology
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 What is the standard warranty service type offered for SurePOS 7x3 systems?
A. Depot Service
B. Carry in Service
C. IBM On-Site Repair
D. IBM EasyServ Repair
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two are included in the system vital product data (VPD)? (Choose two.)
A. machine model
B. hard drive model
C. riser serial number
D. system serial number
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which three are standard features of the IBM SurePOS 700 models 723 and S23 (also known as the
entry-level models)? (Choose three.)
A. 10/100 Ethernet
B. VIA C7 processor
C. CD/DVD combo drive
D. 10/100/1000 Ethernet
E. 80 GB hard disk drive
F. 256 MB DDR2 base memory
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.9 A customer is considering upgrading to the SurePOS 7x3 systems. They need two PCI slots and they
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specialist provide this customer? (Choose two.)
A. Full-length PCI feature cards are not supported.
B. The 7x3 provides support for only two PCI Express slots.
C. PCI slots are only available as a standard feature on the SurePOS 783 models.
D. There is nothing to worry about, since all SurePOS 7x3 models have two PCI slots that will
accommodate full-size and short PCI cards.
E. If a customer has two PCI adapters to migrate forward they will need to select the additional riser
option that provides two PCI slots.
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 A customer wants to perform inventory management, software distribution, and event notification
remotely for their SurePOS 7x3 systems.
Which product supports these three functions on all SurePOS 7x3 supported operating systems?
A. Wired for Management (WfM)
B. Remote Management Agent (RMA)
C. System Management BIOS (SMBIOS)
D. Remote Deployment Manager (RDM)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-920

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebShpere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration)

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NO.1 Bill wants to set up a WebSphere Portal farm with four server instances. Which of the following
statements regarding portal farms is true?
A. All four server instances that become a part of portal farm can be installed on different
operating systems.
B. Session persistence is enabled by default on all four server instances..
C. All the server instances need to be configured such that they have an identical security
configuration and user repository, such as LDAP.
D. Portal and content caches across all four server instances are replicated seamlessly.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate, certain users are
not able to. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct user ID and
password. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users should log in with an email address instead of a user ID.
B. The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where WebSphere Portal looks
for accounts.
C. The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D. The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where does the WebSphere Portal installation wizard log all messages?
A. <WebSphere Portal Root>/log directory
B. <WebSphere Portal Root>/InstallLog directory
C. c:\wpInstallLog.txt file
D. <profile>/PortalServer/temp/InstallLog directory
Answer: A

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NO.4 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.5 After installing a WebSphere Portal V7.0 and a WebSphere Virtual Enterprise server as a primary
server, which of the following options should be done to create a dynamic cluster in a WebSphere
Extended Deployment cell?
A. Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, andrun the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set up the cluster.
B. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set
up the cluster.
C. Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere Extended
Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
D. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell,create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere
Extended Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Tom is going to install a production WebSphere Portal server by replicating the installation someone
else did for the test server. Where can he get the installation information generated during the previous
installation of the test server?
A. <intall_tmp>/wpinstalllog.txt
B. <wp_root>/log/responselog.txt
C. <wp_root>/log/installresponse.txt
D. < intall_tmp>/installmessages.txt
Answer: B

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NO.7 Sherry is preparing the ConfigEngine properties files of different portal servers for their
development, quality test, and production environments. She has noticed that the majority of the
properties are the same except the names for the server hosts, nodes, and so on. Which of the following
options would be the most efficient way for her to do this task?
A. Modify the properties file generated for each portal server separately.
B. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations and specify the location of the parent
properties file to be used when executing
the ConfigEngine tasks.
C. Modify the properties file generated for one of portal servers, copy it to other portal server,s and then
change those names manually.
D. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations, and create a script to be able to replace
the properties of the properties files for
each portal server with the properties from the parent properties file automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.9 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one should
take when setting up a WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1. Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2. Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4. Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node for each portal
node in the cluster.
2. Federate each of these nodes into the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4. Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1. Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the
ConfigEngine tasks to create a profile template.
2. Prepare the first node to communicate WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment,and use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to
configure the cluster and user registry.
3. Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4. Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the cluster
setup.
D. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each portal node in the cluster.
2. Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3. Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4. Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding Multiple Profiles?
A. Multiple profiles share the program files (binaries)
B. Each portal profile maintains its own independent configuration
C. ConfigEngine commands must be performed at the master configuration in order to propagate
changes across all virtual profiles
D. All virtual profiles must be taken down when performing maintenance on the Portal installation
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following options describes a dynamic portal cluster?
A. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Extended Deployment
B. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
C. A portal cluster with a dynamic amount of JVM heap in each cluster member
D. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Dynamic Cluster Manager
Answer: A

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NO.12 Ronnie is designing a WebSphere Portal environment for her company in which multiple
organizations within the company want to provide different portal environments to distinct user groups.
What feature of WebSphere Portal should she use to meet this need?
A. Virtual portals with separate user realms and administrators to minimize hardware costs and
configuration efforts
B. Multiple clusters in the same cell to avoid duplicate portal installations
C. Multiple portal installations on the same hardware using server virtualization to reduce
hardware costs
D. Shared portals to avoid duplicate effort between each portal
Answer: A

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NO.13 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company. If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone portal server with disaster recovery
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load balancing solution, a portal cluster with HTTP
servers handling static content, and
clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C. A portal cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached storage devices
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a portal cluster
Answer: B

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NO.14 Monica is working with clients to architect the security of their new portal, which is a two-server
clustered environment. Her client stores employee accounts in Microsoft Active Directory, and customer
accounts in IBM Tivoli Directory Server. Both employees and customers must be able to log in to the
portal. Which of the following statements is correct.?
A. The client must move all accounts into a single directory, and either of the two directory servers are
appropriate.
B. The client should have one cluster member use Active Directory for authentication, and the other
cluster member use Tivoli Directory Server.
C. The client must use distinct virtual portals for each of the two type of users (employee or customer) to
handle this scenario.
D. It is acceptable to have multiple directory servers used for authentication for all servers in a single
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. If he is using a 32-bit version of WebSphere Portal
and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory. What type of cluster configuration should
he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types
D. A multiproduction cluster because it meets both high availability and high performance criteria
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal and vertical clustering?
A. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources; horizontal clustering
allows multiple servers to act as one
server.
B. Horizontal clustering replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering takes advantage
of multiple WebSphere servers as a
single cell.
C. Vertical clustering takes full advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system; horizontal
clustering provides fault-tolerance and
scalability by adding additional servers.
D. Horizontal clustering allows multiple HTTP servers to serve in a failover scenario; vertical clustering
allows Portal servers to combine processor
and memory into one server.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Jim wants to enable the dynamic cache of output from portlet JSPs for different windows and portlet
states. What does he need to do?
A. He needs to enable Servlet Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
B. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
C. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the portal administrative portlets.
D. He needs to enable Servlet Caching and the Portlet Fragment Caching in the administrative console
for the application server.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content mapping from the
portal page where the content is
rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statement A, Statement B, and Statement C are valid.
E. Only Statement A, and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is a portal farm?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Jim is planning on setting up a Web Content Management System for his company internet and intranet
site. He does not want any of the users to perform authoring actions like creating or editing content in this
server. And he wants them to create/modify content in a separate environment. Identify the best options
that he can consider
A. The WCM content has to be created in the same server it is rendered from.
B. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then setup syndication to replicate data
from Authoring Server to a Deliver Server and render content in deliver server.
C. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then utilize the WSRP support in the
JSR 286 web content viewer to display
content on a remote WebSphere Portal server or cluster.
D. Both B & C
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M87

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Netezza Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about Netezza privileges is NOT true?
A. Privileges are additiveou cannot remove a privilege from a user who has been granted that privilege as
a member of a group.
B. Object owners automatically have full access to their objects.
C. Users with privileges on an object can pass that object to others by default.
D. By default, newly created objects have no privileges associated with them.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is TRUE about the GROOM TABLE command.?
A. You must first run the nzstop command as the nz user from the host command line.
B. GROOM can materialize the results of previous ALTER TABLE ADD/DROP column
commands.
C. The table being groomed will be locked exclusively during the groom operation.
D. GROOM is an administrative command that must be run by a DBA.
Answer: B

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NO.3 With workload management, an Administrator can set aside _________ S-Blades to be used
exclusively with a given database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. all
D. 0
Answer: D

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Exam Code: LOT-917

Exam Name: IBM (Administering IBM Connections 3.0)

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NO.1 Joe has installed and enabled the mobile feature. He has been using the self-signed SSL certificate
produced by WebSphere Application Server, rather than having a trusted certificate.
What must he do to allow iPhone and iPod Touch users to access secure pages from their devices without
receiving warnings about the untrusted certificate?
A. The mobile feature does not support authenticated access or HTTPS communication.
B. The mobile feature does not support authenticated access or HTTPS communication.
C. Nothing. The iPhone and iPod Touch devices automatically trust the self-signed certificate and allow
the user to access Connections information without warnings being shown.
D. Send an email to his users with the certificate as an attachment, ask them to open the
attachment from the device. When they do, the device recognizes it, and installs the certificate.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Juan is preparing Tivoli Directory Integrator to populate and maintain Profiles records, and he must
configure the environment so that the Connections and Tivoli Directory Integrator solution tasks can
connect to the database hosting the Profiles database. How does he configure the database drivers so
that they are available to the solution?
A. He copies the database JDBC drivers to the jvm/jre/lib/ext subdirectory of the Tivoli Directory Integrator
installation.
B. No driver configuration is necessary, because all database connections are managed by the database
client software.
C. He updates the Tivoli Directory Integrator solution's profiles_tdi.properties file, and sets the
dbrepos_jdbc_driver property to a local directory path containing the database JDBC drivers.
D. He updates the ibmdisrv file in the Tivoli Directory Integrator installation directory and adds a the local
directory path containing the database JDBC drivers using the "-driverpath" parameter on the Java
invocation command.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Bob needs to configure federated repositories using LDAP over SSL. Identify which of the following
tasks is not required to enable SSL communication over LDAP.?
A. Change the port number to the SSL port of the LDAP server.
B. Select the SSL alias defined by Bob in the trust store in the federated repositories configuration.
C. Add a signer certificate to the trust store in WebSphere Application Server by retrieving the certificate
from the LDAP port.
D. Generate a self-signed certificate with an alias using the ikey manager utility and add it to the
Websphere Application Server certificate store.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Dahlia is installing Connections on a Microsoft Windows operating system. She has chosen to use the
text installation command window instead of the graphical one. Which of the following commands allows
her to launch the installation console interface on Microsoft Windows?
A. install_root.sh
B. No console install option exists in Connections 3. Dahlia must use the silent installation process
instead.
C. install.bat -console
D. LCconfig.exe -console
Answer: B

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NO.5 When you installed Connections you specified Oracle for the RDBMS system to store data. What must
you do to enable the applications to use the JDBC driver?
A. Install the Oracle thin client on all WebSphere Application Server nodes.
B. Install the Oracle thin client on the deployment manager and stop and restart all nodes.
C. Copy the Oracle JDBC driver to the same location on all nodes.
D. Install Oracle SQL Plus on all WebSphere Application Server nodes and configure the TNS Listener
with the Oracle server connection URL.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Baxter just installed the Search application on multiple nodes. What configuration does Baxter need to
perform to initialize the search index on all nodes?
A. Set SEARCH_INDEX_DIR on all nodes to the same network share
B. Copy the search index to the same place on each node
C. Build the search index on each node
D. Nothing; the index is automatically created across all the nodes
Answer: B

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NO.7 Baxter has just finished installing everything in Connections except Files and Wikis. He has now
changed his mind and decided that they need Files. What must Baxter do to install Files?
A. Install the Files.ear file from within the WebSphere Application Server administration console.
B. Connections needs to be uninstalled and then reinstalled with Files.
C. Files is always installed, it just needs to be enabled.
D. Use the IBM Installation Manager, select Modify, and add Files.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Judy wrote an audit tool that plugs into Connections using the Event SPI. How is an Event SPI
implementation deployed?
A. The extension is a stand-alone JAR file that must be added to every EAR file. This process can be
manually copied to the EAR or deployed using the WebSphere Application Server admininstrative
application update tools.
B. Judy must create a WAR file that must then be deployed to every EAR file that you want to audit. The
LotusConnections-config.xml file must be updated by adding a new service entry.
C. The extension must be included in an EAR file and deployed to an existing or new cluster. The
LotusConnections-config.xml file must be updated by adding a new service entry.
D. The extension is deployed as a WebSphere Application Server shared library.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Arthur, the administrator, has just configured the <languageSelector> element in the
LotusConnections-config.xml file with a value of defaultLanguage="en" and no additional langage
elements listed. What is the user experience for Miguel, a user, when he accesses Connections features
with a locale setting of "es" (Spanish) in his browser?
A. The language that Miguel can view the Connections interface in a web browser is based on his
preferredLanguage.
B. The default value of the server operating system that Connections was installed on is French, so
Miguel is only able to see the user interface in French.
C. Because the default language is "en" and no additional language elements are included in the
LotusConnections-config.xml file, Miguel only sees the English Connections interface.
D. Miguel sees the user interface in Spanish because the browser locale setting overrides the default
language setting in the LotusConnections-config.xml file. But, he can select any language that he wants
from the toggle button.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Patrick has defined an IBM HTTP Server and mapped his installed features to it. However, he still sees
that the port numbers are in the URL when he uses a link from the navigation bar. What is the most likely
reason this is happening?
A. The host alias has not been defined for his features.
B. The feature's port numbers have not been removed from the serverindex.xml file.
C. The feature's port numbers must be removed from the IBM HTTP Servers httpd.conf file.
D. The feature's port numbers have not been removed from the LotusConnections-config.xml file.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-553

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist Netezza Performance Software v6.0)

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NO.1 Which statement about the TwinFin Groom feature is true?
A. GROOM TABLE requires space to make a complete copy of the table.
B. GROOM TABLE only operates on tables that include an ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. GROOM TABLE prevents nzload from adding data while GROOM is in progress.
D. GROOM TABLE allows UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT operations to occur while GROOM is in
progress.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When creating a table, you can specify a column constraint for each individual column of either "NULL"
or "NOT NULL". When column values are later evaluated within a query statement, which of these is true?
A. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
B. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
C. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
D. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
Answer: D

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NO.3 .When working with sequences, which of the following statements will always be true?
A. One-up numbers are generated.
B. Integers (whole numbers) are generated.
C. The first value generated is the number 1.
D. The sequence number assigned will be unique across all tables and databases.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which CREATE DATABASE attributes are required?
A. The database name.
B. The database name and the redo log file name.
C. The database name and the table space name.
D. The database name and the temporary table space name.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When are zonemaps initially created for a table?
A. nzbackup
B. nzreclaim
C. CREATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAPS
Answer: C

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NO.6 Columns in a table may be zonemapped. How are those columns chosen?
A. They are automatically selected by the system.
B. They are based on the same columns as the table's distribution key.
C. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD INDEX(column_name) statement.
D. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAP(column_name) statement.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding any database user?
A. The user has a table space defined.
B. The user can be assigned to more than one group.
C. The user must have a corresponding host account.
D. The user can be removed from the default PUBLIC group.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What should be considered when you are asked to select the distribution key columns for a very large
fact table?
A. As many columns as possible.
B. Columns that contain many nulls.
C. Columns that contain few unique values.
D. Columns used to join to other large tables.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two statistical data points are automatically updated when performing an INSERT on a table?
(Choose two.)
A. The number of rows in the table.
B. The column histogram statistics.
C. The number of NULLs in each column.
D. The number of unique values in each column.
E. The minimum and maximum column value information (excluding text columns).
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 What is the raw user data space available on a TwinFin 24?
A. 24TB
B. 48TB
C. 64TB
D. 100TB
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which statement is true for database users and groups.?
A. All users must belong to admin group.
B. Creation of users and groups is not allowed.
C. Users and groups are local and tied to a particular database.
D. Users and groups are global and not tied to a particular database.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which clause CANNOT be used with a CREATE VIEW statement?
A. SUM ()
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.15 Using a date column as a distribution key may distribute rows evenly across dataslices, why is this a
poor choice of a distribution key?
A. Queries on the table will invoke compression.
B. Queries on date range may involve processing skew.
C. Queries on date range will utilize only host processing.
D. Queries on the table will invoke compression on the date columns.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two characteristics describe the materialized view on TwinFin. (Choose two.)
A. Materialized views can contain aggregates.
B. Materialized views can contain a HAVING clause.
C. Materialized views can contain a WHERE clause.
D. Materialized views can contain an ORDER BY clause.
E. Materialized views can reference only one base table in the FROM clause.
Answer: D,E

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NO.17 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following query:
SELECT * FROM TableA, TableB WHERE TableA.c_custkey = TableB.o_custkey;
What type of join processing will occur when the query is executed?
A. Collocation hash join processing
B. Distributed hash join processing
C. Broadcast sort merge join processing
D. Replication sort merge join processing
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered base table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.19 After performing a GROOM on a clustered base table, which statement is true?
A. The table is redistributed on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
B. The table is reorganized on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. The table is reorganized on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
D. The table is redistributed on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the TwinFin host Linux file that must be modified to adjust optimizer settings
permanently?
A. /nz/data/postgresql.conf
B. /nz/data/config/system.cfg
C. /nz/kit/sys/initTopology.cfg
D. /nz/kit/log/sysmgr/sysmgr.log
Answer: A

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Exam Code: COG-615

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Real-time Monitoring Developer)

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NO.1 A small banking customer is using Real-time Monitoring (RTM) to monitor and notify customers if they
are over drafting their checking accounts. Customer information like name and e-mail address are in a
DB2 database and joined to the data based on the account ID. The customers all have accounts in RTM
and are members of the "Customers" role. The alert should only be sent to the primary e-mail account and
not shown on the RTM dashboard. What must you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Choose the "Account ID" column for a data-driven subscription.
B. Choose the "Email" column for a data-driven subscription.
C. Subscribe the "Customers" role to the alert as a mandatory subscriber.
D. Subscribe each user from the "Customers" role to the alert as an optional subscriber.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A virtual machine farm technician is monitoring the memory usage of hundreds of virtual machines in
the farm. The technician previously defined a rule to be informed with an immediate notification if the
memory usage on any virtual machine remains above 90 percent for two minutes. The technician now
wants to reset the alert once the memory usage stabilizes and falls below 80 percent after such an
incident. Which three steps are part of the solution? (Choose three.)
A. Define a rule with condition -- memory usage < 90%.
B. Define a rule with condition -- memory usage < 80%.
C. Create a new alert and select "Reset an alert".
D. Select the alert defined for "memory usage > 90%" and choose "Reset an alert for a specific
occurrence".
E. Specify "Maintain alert states for".
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 What contains the minimum required access permissions to create a cube?
A. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, CREATE for Lookup Tables and Data Streams, and
READ-ONLY for an existing View
B. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, CREATE for Lookup Tables and Data Streams, and
READ-ONLY for the dimensions to include in the cube
C. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, READ-ONLY for an existing View, and READONLY for
the dimensions to include in the cube
D. CREATE for Views, Cubes and Dimensions, and READ-ONLY for an existing View
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three settings are required to synchronize the user and/or roles from an external directory server,
like LDAP, to Real-time Monitoring? (Choose three.)
A. LDAP User Primary Email
B. LDAP User Base DN
C. LDAP Port
D. LDAP Synchronization User DN
E. LDAP Principal DN Prefix
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 A customer switches from internal authentication to external LDAP authentication. They have an
existing internal user "Bob" with a password "internal". They have another user named "Bob" in the
external LDAP server with password "external". They synchronize the users from the external LDAP
server to Real-time Monitoring. Why is the customer unable to login with the username and password
"Bob/external"?
A. Synchronization succeeded and the external user Bob replaced the existing internal user Bob.
B. Synchronization failed as there was an existing internal user Bob in the metadata, so no new external
user was imported.
C. Synchronization succeeded and the external user Bob was skipped because there was an existing
internal user Bob in the metadata.
D. Synchronization failed but the internal user Bob was deleted and no new external user was imported.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A user wants to set up an escalation rule for an alert which was still in an exception condition for more
than two hours. Which function should be used in the rule?
A. HOLDS_FOR
B. IS_RAISED
C. IS_ACKED
D. ESCALATE
Answer: B

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NO.7 Real-time Monitoring (RTM) is used as a performance management tool in a call center. An alert with
the agent name and agent code is generated when the performance of an agent is below a specified
threshold value. Managers have requested that the alert message provide a link to the ERP system. The
link should contain the agent code as a parameter in the URL. How would you accomplish this goal?
A. Use an external portlet with a dynamic parameter.
B. Use an external reportlet with a dynamic parameter.
C. Use an external reportlet with a static parameter for the agent code.
D. Insert a direct link to the ERP system in the alert body.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A retail customer wants to monitor inventory shortages using the Real-time Monitoring application. They
would like to be notified by e-mail when any particular item is below a predefined threshold. Since
replenishment occurs weekly, they do not want to be notified again until the inventory has been restocked.
Which two actions accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Create a fire rule with "do not notify" set to seven days.
B. Create a rule which resets a previously raised alert.
C. Create a "notify me once" rule which automatically resets weekly.
D. Create a "raise" rule which will send an alert message.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 When editing a user's Access Permissions, what is meant by the term Effective Permissions?
A. the greatest level of permission assigned by Role-Granted and User-Specific permissions
B. the user's permissions against the currently selected object
C. the lowest level of permission assigned by Role-Granted and User-Specific permissions
D. the permission implementation that most effectively secures your application
Answer: A

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NO.10 A user belongs to a role whose members have read-only access to views, cubes, and dimensions. Why
is this user able to edit a particular view in the Real-time Monitoring Workbench?
A. The user has been granted read/write permission directly on the DataStream used by the view.
B. The role the user belongs to has been granted read/write permission directly on the DataStream used
by the view.
C. All views are editable by default, regardless of permissions inherited by the role.
D. The user has been granted read/write permission directly on the view object.
Answer: D

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