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Exam Code: 9A0-154
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Premiere Pro CS5 ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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9A0-154 (Adobe Premiere Pro CS5 ACE Exam) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/9A0-154.html

NO.1 Which of the following steps will you take to create a template from an open title? Each correct answer
represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Click the triangle next to a category name to expand it.
B. With a title open, click the Templates button.
C. Enter a name for the title templatethen click the OK button.
D. Click the Templates menu button. Choose Import Current Title As Template.
Answer: BCD

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NO.2 Which of the following is used to specify how much before the In point Adobe Premiere Pro starts
playing the tape before capture?
A. Offline
B. Preroll Time
C. Detected
D. Timecode Offset
Answer: B

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NO.3 Choose and reorder the correct steps to apply effects to clips.
Answer:

NO.4 Mark works as a Premiere Pro editor for company Inc. He wants to map the source audio channels so
that one or more groups of six channels are placed into separate 5.1 surround audio tracks. Which of the
following options will Mark choose to accomplish the task?
A. Choose the 5.1 option.
B. Choose the Set Linear Key-frame Thinning option.
C. Choose the Set Minimum Time Interval Thinning option.
D. Choose the Set the 5.1 Mixdown Type option.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following steps will you take to specify the tracks to change with Sync Lock? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Choose an option from the Placement menu for each type of track added.
B. Shift-click the Toggle Sync Lock box at the head of any track of that type.
C. Choose an option from the Track Type menu for audio and audio submix tracks.
D. Click the Toggle Sync Lock box at the head of each video and audio track that you want to be affected
by the edit.
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Which of the following are the view area options available on the panel menu of the Export Settings
viewing area? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Chronic Pixel Preview
B. 1:1 Pixel Preview
C. SVG output Preview
D. Aspect Ratio Corrected Preview
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which of the following options in device control shows the number of frames to adjust the timecode
embedded in the captured video?
A. Preroll
B. Remained frames
C. Uncaptured roll
D. Timecode Offset
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which option of batch capturing will you choose to capture frames beyond the In and Out points
identified for each clip in the batch?
A. Batch Capture
B. Capture panel
C. Capture With Handles
D. Override Capture Settings
Answer: C

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NO.9 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
___________________is a standalone encoding application employed by programs, such as Premiere
Pro, After Effects, SoundboothEncore.
Answer: Adobe Media Encoder

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NO.10 Mark works as a Premiere Pro editor for company Inc. He is optimizing the scratch disk performance.
Which of the following steps will Mark take if he has only one hard disk on his computer?
A. Leave all scratch disk options at their default settings.
B. Defragment the hard disk.
C. Create one more drive for Premiere Pro projects.
D. Create a separate folder for each file type of the project.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following options of the Title Properties panel is used to specify the amount of space
between lines of type?
A. Aspect
B. Slant
C. Tracking
D. Leading
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following file formats uses the .mov extension?
A. QuickTime
B. MP3
C. P2 Movie
D. JPEG
Answer: A

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NO.13 In which of the following locations are presets located? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. DVCPROHD > 720p
B. DVCPRO50 > 480i
C. DVCPROHD > 2160i
D. DVCPROHD > 1080i
Answer: ABD

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NO.14 Which of the following options is used to switch the selected object with the object directly in front of it
while changing the stacking order of objects in titles?
A. Send To Back
B. Bring Forward
C. Bring To Front
D. Send Backward
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following options of the General tab is used to specify the dimensions, in pixels, for
frames while playing back sequences?
A. Fields
B. Pixel Aspect Ratio
C. Display Format (Audio)
D. Frame Size
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is used to shorten a clip in a Timeline by speeding up its playback, or to lengthen
it by slowing it down?
A. Rate Stretch
B. Ripple Edit
C. Rolling Edit
D. Razor
Answer: A

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NO.17 In Timebase of the General tab, which option (frames/ second) will a user choose to edit PAL (European
standard) and SECAM video.?
A. 29.97
B. 28
C. 25
D. 24
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following tools is used to simultaneously change the In and Out points of a clip in a
Timeline, while keeping the time span between them constant?
A. Rolling Edit
B. Ripple Edit
C. Track Selection
D. Slip
Answer: D

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NO.19 Mark works as a Premiere Pro editor for company Inc. He is using time remapping. He has adjusted the
speed of an instance of a clip in the Timeline. This clip contains audio also. What will be the effect on the
audio of the clip while adjusting its speed by time remapping?
A. The audio speed will be synchronized with the clip speed.
B. The audio will not play.
C. The audio will be locked automatically.
D. The audio speed will remain at 100% speed.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following Fast Color Corrector effects is used to display the left or upper part of the image
as the corrected view and the right or lower part of the image as the uncorrected view?
A. Show Split View
B. Layout
C. White Balance
D. Split View Percent
Answer: A

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Exam Code: Maya12.A
Exam Name: Autodesk (Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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Exam Code: 030-333
Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Exercise Specialist Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding cooldown is FALSE?
A. The emphasis should be large muscle activity performed at a low to moderate intensity.
B. Increasing venous return should be a priority during cool-down.
C. The potential for improving flexibility may be improved during cool-down as compared with
warm-up.
D. Between 1 and 2 minutes are recommended for an adequate cool-down.
Answer: D

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NO.2 .According to the most recent National Institutes of Health's Clinical Guidelines for the
Identification, Evaluation, and Treatment of Overweight and Obesity in Adults, recommendations
for practical clinical assessment include
A. Determining total body fat through the BMI to assess obesity.
B. Determining the degree of abdominal fat and health risk through waist circumference.
C. Using the waist-to-hip ratio as the only definition of obesity and lean muscle mass.
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

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NO.3 .Which of the following statements regarding warm-up is FALSE?
A. Muscle blood flow is increased as a result of warm-up.
B. Peripheralvasodilation occurs as a result of warm-up.
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs as a result of warm-up.
D. Between 5 and 10 minutes should be allotted for a warm-up period.
Answer: C

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NO.4 .A 62-year-old, obese factory worker complains of pain in his right shoulder on arm abduction; on
evaluation, decreased ROM and strength are noted. You also notice that he is beginning to use
accessory muscles to substitute movements and to compensate. These symptoms may indicate
A. A referred pain from a herniated lumbar disk.
B. Rotator cuff strain or impingement.
C. angina.
D. Advanced stages of multiple sclerosis.
Answer: B

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NO.5 .Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment activity for inpatient rehabilitation of a
client on the second day after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery?
A. Limit activities as tolerated to the development of self-care activities, ROM for extremities, and
low-resistance activities.
B. Limit upper body activities to biceps curls, horizontal arm adduction, and overhead press using
5-pound weights while sitting on the side of the bed.
C. Progress all activities performed from supine to sitting to standing.
D. Measure vital signs, symptoms, RPE, fatigue, and skin color and perform electrocardiography
before, during, and after treatments to assess activity tolerance.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Special precautions for clients with hypertension include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Avoiding muscle strengthening exercises that involve low resistance.
B. Avoiding activities that involve theValsalva maneuver.
C. Monitoring a client who is taking diuretics for arrhythmias.
D. Avoiding exercise if resting systolic BP is greater than 200 mm Hg or diastolic BP is greater
than 115 mm Hg.
Answer: A

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NO.7 .Which of the following issues would you include in discharge education instructions for a client
with congestive heart failure to avoid potential emergency situations related to this condition at
home?
A. Record body weight daily, and report weight gains to a physician.
B. Note signs and symptoms (e.g.,dyspnea, intolerance to activities of daily living), and report
them to a physician.
C. Do not palpate the pulse during daily activities or periods of light- headedness, because an
irregular pulse is normal and occurs at various times during the day.
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

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NO.8 .All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise modalities EXCEPT
A. Weight training.
B. Walking.
C. Bicycling.
D. Stair climbing.
Answer: A

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NO.9 .Which of the following is NOT a benefit of increased flexibility?
A. Increased muscle viscosity, allowing easier and smoother contractions.
B. Reduced muscle tension and increased relaxation.
C. Improved coordination by allowing greater ease of movement.
D. IncreasedROM.
Answer: A

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NO.10 .The recommended cardiorespiratory exercise training goal for apparently healthy individuals
should be
A. 15 minutes, six times per week, at 90% of HRR.
B. 30 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
C. 60 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
D. 30 minutes of weight training, three times per week, at 60% of HRR.
Answer: B

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NO.11 .Muscular endurance training is best accomplished by
A. Performing four to six repetitions per set.
B. Using high resistance.
C. Incorporating high repetitions.
D. Performing isometric exercises only.
Answer: C

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NO.12 .During the cool-down phase of an exercise session, clients should be encouraged to
A. Rehydrate.
B. Decrease the intensity of activity quickly to decrease cardiacafterload.
C. Limit the cool-down period to 5 minutes.
D. Increase the number of isometric activities.
Answer: A

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NO.13 .A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus checks her fasting morning glucose level on her whole-blood
glucose meter (fingerstick method), and the result of 253 mgldL (14 mmol/L). A urine test is
positive for ketones before her exercise session. What action should you take?
A. Allow her to exercise as long as her glucose is not greater than 300mgldL (17 mmol/L).
B. Not allow her to exercise this session, and notify her physician of the findings.
C. Give her an extra carbohydrate snack, and wait 5 minutes before beginning exercise.
D. Readjust her insulin regimen for the remainder of the day to compensate for the high morning
glucose level.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What common medication taken by clients with end-stage renal disease requires careful
management for those undergoing hemodialysis?
A. Antihypertensive medication.
B. Lithium.
C. Cholestyramine.
D. Cromolyn sodium.
Answer: A

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NO.15 .Symptoms of claudication include
A. Cramping, burning, and tightness in the calf muscle, usually triggered by activity and relieved
with rest.
B. Acute, sharp pain in the foot on palpation at rest.
C. Crepitus in the knee during cycling.
D. Pitting ankle edema at a rating of 3 +
Answer: A

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NO.16 .A client taking a calcium-channel blocker most likely will exhibit which of the following responses
during exercise?
A. Hypertensive response.
B. Increased ischemia.
C. Improvedanginal thresholds.
D. Severe hypotension.
Answer: C

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NO.17 .Transitional care exercise and rehabilitation programs are NOT appropriate for
A. Clients with functionally limitingchronicdisease.
B. Clients withcomorbid disease states.
C. Asymptomatic clients with a functional capacity of 10 MET.
D. Clients at 1 week after CABG surgery.
Answer: C

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NO.18 .In an effort to improve flexibility, the ACSM recommends
A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.
B. Ballistic stretching.
C. The plough and hurdler's stretches.
D. Static stretches held for 10 to 30 seconds per repetition.
Answer: D

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NO.19 .Initial training sessions for a person with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease most likely
would NOT include
A. Continuous cycling activity at 70% of Vo2 max for 30 minutes.
B. Use ofdyspnea scales, RPE scales, and pursed-lip breathing instruction.
C. Intermittent bouts of activity on a variety of modalities (exercise followed by short rest).
D. Encouraging the client to achievean intensity either at or above the anaerobic threshold.
Answer: A

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NO.20 .The appropriate exercise HR for an individual on -blocking medication would generally
be
A. 75% of HRR.
B. 30bpm above the standing resting HR.
C. 40% of HRR.
D. (220 - age) X 0.85.
Answer: A

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NO.21 .A specific benefit of regular exercise for patients with angina is
A. Improved ischemic threshold at which angina symptoms occur.
B. Increased myocardial oxygen demand at the samesubmaximallevels.
C. Eradication of all symptoms.
D. Elevation of BP.
Answer: A

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NO.22 .Which of the following situations indicates progression to independent and unsupervised exercise
for a client after CABG surgery in an outpatient program?
A. The client exhibits mild cardiac symptoms of angina, occurring intermittently during exercise
and sometimes at home while reading.
B. The client has a functional capacity of greater than 8 MET with hemodynamic responses
appropriate to this level of exercise.
C. The client is noncompliant with smoking cessation and weight loss intervention programs.
D. The client is unable to palpate HR, deliver RPEs, or maintain steady workload intensity during
activity.
Answer: B

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NO.23 .Which of the following is a resistive lung disease?
A. Asthma.
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Cystic fibrosis.
D. Emphysema.
Answer: B

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NO.24 .Treatment for claudication during exercise includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Daily exercise sessions.
B. Intensity of activity to maximal tolerable pain, with intermittent rest periods.
C. Cardiorespiratory building activities that are nonweight bearing if the plan is to work on longer
duration and higher intensity to elicit a cardiorespiratory training effect.
D. Stopping activity at the onset ofclaudication discomfort to avoid further vascular damage from
ischemia.
Answer: D

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NO.25 .All of the following are special considerations inprescribing exercise for the client with arthritis
EXCEPT
A. The possible need to splint painful jointsforprotection.
B. Periods of acute inflammation result in decreased pain and joint stiffness.
C. The possibility of gait abnormalities as compensation for pain or stiffness.
D. The need to avoid exercise of warm,swollenjoints.
Answer: B

ACSM   030-333   030-333

NO.26 .A target HR equivalent to 85% of HRR for a 25year-old male with a resting HR of 75
bpm would be equal to
A. 195bpm.
B. 166bpm.
C. 177bpm.
D. 102bpm.
Answer: C

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NO.27 .A client with angina exhibits symptoms and a 1mm, down-sloping ST- segment depression at a
HR of 129 bpm on his exercise test. His peak exercise target HR should be set at
A. 128bpm.
B. 109 to 119bpm.
C. 129bpm.
D. 125 to 128bpm.
Answer: B

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NO.28 .Many clients have WI-mode programmed pacemakers. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
exercise programming with WI pacemakers?
A. Persons with WI pacemakers may bechronotropically (HR) competent with exercise but require
longer warm-up and gradual increase in intensity during the initial exercise portion of their session.
B. Persons who arechronotropically competent are tachycardic at rest and should not exercise at
low intensities.
C. BP response is not a good marker of intensity effort in those with WI pacemakers and need not
be evaluated during an exercise session.
D. Persons with WI pacemakers must avoid exercise on the bicycleergometer because of the
location of the ventricular lead wire and potential for displacement.
Answer: A

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NO.29 .Controlling pool water temperature (83-88¡ãF), avoiding jarring and weigh- bearing activities, and
avoiding movement in swollen, inflamed joints are special considerations for exercise in
A. Clients afteratherectomy.
B. Clients with angina.
C. Clients with osteoporosis.
D. Clients with arthritis.
Answer: D

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NO.30 .Which of the following is an appropriate exercise for clients with diabetes and loss of protective
sention in the extremities?
A. Prolonged walking.
B. Jogging.
C. Step-class exercise.
D. Swimming.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which is a common physical symptom of stress?
A. You are more susceptible to colds.
B. You rarely take lunch breaks.
C. You work longer hours.
D. Your colleagues all seem busy.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A. Closed questions.
B. Open questions.
C. Technical questions.
D. Personal questions.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following techniques is the best one for reducing and eliminating conflict during a call?
A. Match the customer attitude.
B. Refrain from interrupting the customer.
C. Stop using the customer name.
D. Tell the customer you feel sorry for them.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your help desk/Service Desk wishes to become a model for best practice, what is one of the main
sources of excellent information and advice to help achieve this?
A. A web master magazine.
B. Senior management meetings.
C. Knowledge Centred Support.
D. The marketing department.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What information must be logged for every Incident?
A. A corrected version of the customer description of the Incident.
B. A note aboutthe customer preferred desksidetechnician.
C. Any commitments made to the customer.
D. Your opinion about the customer technical expertise.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a benefit of teamwork?
A. Better time management.
B. Higher employee morale.
C. Improved conformity.
D. Increased competition.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the best way of using silent time effectively?
A. Build a rapport with your customer.
B. Check your e-mail.
C. Identify the best time for your break.
D. Write an e-mail to a colleague.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the best description of your role in supporting customers?
A. Avoid confrontation at all costs.
B. Deliver consistent, high quality support.
C. Escalate calls as appropriate.
D. Minimise talk time.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What factor is most important in determining the priority of an Incident?
A. The caller connection to the Service Desk.
B. The caller emotional state.
C. The Incident impact on the business.
D. The Incident impact on the Service Desk.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When you have a call that cannot be resolved, what is the last step you will take prior to disengaging
from the customer?
A. Confirm the details provided by the customer.
B. Determine the priority of the Incident.
C. Set the customer expectation for the next contact.
D. Verify the customer eligibility for service.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is a best practice to follow when documenting an Incident?
A. Always take a break before you write anything down.
B. Avoid making negative references about the customer in the documentation.
C. Make sure that others know how the customer treated you by documenting the interaction.
D. Use emoticons to communicate the personality of a customer.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is a best practice for reducing conflict?
A. Agree with the customer.
B. Interject your opinion into the conversation.
C. Let the customer know that you are in charge.
D. Show the customer respect.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which statement best describes a good leader?
A. Good leaders demonstrate absolute control over their teams.
B. Good leaders do not need to offer incentives.
C. Good leaders encourage initiative.
D. Good leaders make all the decisions for their staff.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is a best practice for demonstrating personal accountability in your work.?
A. Blame others for mistakes.
B. Never admit that you made a mistake.
C. Perform your duties in a manner that meets with company policy.
D. Work according to your mood.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the best reason for using a standard greeting when answering telephone calls?
A. Using a standard greeting complies with Service Desk standards.
B. Using a standard greeting ensures consistent service.
C. Using a standard greeting makes the customer feel humble.
D. Using a standard greeting prevents individuals developing their own greetings.
Answer: B

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NO.1 What allows a BlackBerry device to be added as a valid BlackBerry device to a BlackBerry MVS user
DN in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager environment? (Choose one.)
A. Enabling KPML
B. Assigning the MVS user a 10 digit DID/DDI
C. Installing the COP file and rebooting the PBX
D. Configuring CSS for BlackBerry device-initiated calling
E. Setting the call direction for PBX-initiated calls in a MVS user class of service
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which BlackBerry MVS Session Manager configuration setting is required in order for BlackBerry
device-initiated calling to work? (Choose one.)
A. Configure a unique SIP IP address
B. Configure BlackBerry MVS for High Availability
C. Add a unique DID/DDI number to each BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
D. Add a unique BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector Caller Identification Number
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which logging level in the BlackBerry Mobile Voice System Configuration tool logs the SIP messages
between the BlackBerry MVS Server and PBX? (Choose one.)
A. Info
B. Severe
C. Warning
D. Finer
E. Finest
Answer: E

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NO.4 How many SIP Trunks are required in Cisco Unified Communications Manager when configuring
BlackBerry MVS for high availability? (Choose one.)
A. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and one SIP Trunk for the
BlackBerry MVS Console
B. Four SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
C. Two SIP Trunks are required between the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and two SIP
Trunks for the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
Answer: D

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NO.5 For BlackBerry devices that operate on GSM networks, which Voice over Mobile call direction offers
optimal performance and reliability? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry device-initiated
B. SIP Line
C. SIP Trunk
D. PBX-initiated
E. Voice over Wi-Fi
Answer: D

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NO.6 When a BlackBerry device is connected to a network, which BlackBerry MVS diagnostic tool should
the BlackBerry MVS user use to determine the SSID of that network? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Provisioning Report
B. Manage Connections Service status
C. BlackBerry MVS Unified Diagnostic Report
D. BlackBerry MVS Server MVS Session Managerlog
E. BlackBerry device Connection Logging
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are three functions of the SIP Line connection between the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
and the PBX? (Choose three.)
A. Registering BlackBerry MVS users with the PBX
B. Communicating Call setup messages
C. Reporting on the health of the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
D. Exchanging KPML messages
E. Performing PBX directory lookups
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the line port in the BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector configuration?
(Choose one.)
A. To allow the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager to receive BlackBerry-initiated calls from the SIP Line
on the PBX
B. To allow the BlackBerry MVS to forward calls using the SIP Line on the PBX to the mobile number of
the BlackBerry device
C. To allow BlackBerry MVS to initiate calls using the SIP Line on the PBX to the mobile number of the
BlackBerry device
D. To allow BlackBerry MVS Clients to register as a BlackBerry MVS Client on the PBX using the SIP Line
Answer: D

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NO.9 On a planning call with a customer, the Windows account requirements for the BlackBerry MVS
installation are discussed. The customer says that the BlackBerry MVS account sounds similar to the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server ESadmin account. The customer asks if this account can be used for
BlackBerry MVS. What is the appropriate response to this query? (Choose one.)
A. This account can be used since it meets the requirements of the Windows account for
BlackBerry MVS.
B. This account cannot be used at the risk of causing issues with the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. The permissions appear similar but are not. TheBESadmin account cannot be used.
D. The BESadmin account must be used since the BlackBerry MVS installation sets up the connection to
the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What allows a BlackBerry device to differentiate between an inbound call to the mobile number and an
inbound call to the work number? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry MVS Client is programmed to recognize calls from a specific DID that the PBX uses to
indicate an enterprise call
B. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server notifies the BlackBerry device user with an email message
C. An indicator isprepended to the ANI that is sent by the PBX to the BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager sends a SIP message to the BlackBerry MVS client to indicate
that a work call has been initiated
E. Calls to the mobile number use a different ring sequence
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the maximum round trip ping time supported between Cisco Unified Communications Manager
and the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager? (Choose one.)
A. 40 milliseconds
B. 80 milliseconds
C. 120 milliseconds
D. 240 milliseconds
E. 480 milliseconds
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which type of database authentication is required if BlackBerry MVS is installed on a different Microsoft
Windows domain than the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Windows authentication
B. Microsoft SQL Server authentication
C. Authentication set todb_owner
D. Trusted authentication
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the primary function of the BlackBerry Dispatcher in the BlackBerry MVS Solution? (Choose
one.)
A. It compresses and encrypts all data that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The BlackBerry
Dispatcher sends the data through the BlackBerry Router to the BlackBerry MVS Session
Manager.
B. It compresses and encrypts all data that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The BlackBerry
Dispatcher sends the data through the BlackBerry Router, to and from the wireless network.
C. It compresses and encrypts all data that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The BlackBerry
Dispatcher sends the data through the media gateway, to and from the wireless network.
D. It compresses and encrypts RTP traffic that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The
BlackBerry Dispatcher sends the data through the media gateway, to and from the wireless network.
E. It compresses and encrypts RTP traffic that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The
BlackBerry Dispatcher sends the data through the BlackBerry Router, to and from the wireless network.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which service book is required by the BlackBerry MVS Client to function properly? (Choose one.)
A. Desktop [VoIP]
B. Desktop [MVSSIP]
C. Desktop [BBMVS]
D. Desktop [BBSIP]
Answer: D

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NO.15 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.16 For BlackBerry devices that operate on CDMA networks, which Voice over Mobile call direction offers
the optimal performance and reliability? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry device-initiated
B. SIP Line
C. SIP Trunk
D. PBX-initiated
E. Voice over Wi-Fi
Answer: A

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NO.17 An organization has a hunt group that is configured in the PBX with multiple outgoing trunks. Each
trunk is assigned a unique Caller Identification Number. Where must each Caller Identification Number be
added to ensure that PBX-initiated calling will work? (Choose one.)
A. The MVS locations field in the BlackBerry MVS Console
B. The BlackBerry MVS Client on the BlackBerry device
C. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager in the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. The BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector in the BlackBerry MVS Console
Answer: D

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NO.18 The following is a sample of which type of log file? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Session Manager (BBSM)
B. BlackBerry MVS SIP (BBSIP)
C. BlackBerry MVS Call Detail Record (CDR)
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher (DISP)
E. BlackBerry Router (ROUT)
Answer: A

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NO.19 What happens during an active BlackBerry MVS call when a failover is initiated by the BlackBerry MVS
Console? (Choose one.)
A. Active BlackBerry MVS Wi-Fi calls are preserved
B. Active BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile calls are preserved
C. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are dropped without notification
D. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are preserved
E. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are dropped after the notification tone
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which three processes make use of the SIP Trunk? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Client registration
B. Mobile Call initiation using voice over mobile
C. Mid-call features such as transfer and hold
D. BlackBerry device-initiated call authentication
E. Wi-Fi profile authentication
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: BCP-710
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Selling the Blackberry Solution for Tech. Sales Professional)
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Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which new feature of BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 can be utilized to minimize or eliminate
upgrade-related down-time? (Choose one.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Transporter
C. BlackBerry Administration Service
D. BlackBerry Disposition Service
E. High availability
F. Application Pool
Answer: E

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NO.2 The security team is requesting the ability to control what types of BlackBerry smartphones can activate
on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. Using the Enterprise Service Policy which three restrictions can be
implemented to control which BlackBerry smartphones can use the BlackBerry Enterprise Server?
(Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Model Name
B. ESN Range
C. Manufacturer's Name
D. PIN Range
E. Wi-Fi Equipped
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Which five components in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are part of the attachment process when
requested from an email message on the BlackBerry smartphone?
Answer:

NO.4 Which two of the following are valid Wi-Fi security protocols? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. WPA
B. PSK
C. Triple DES
D. AES
E. PGP
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 IT polices are assigned for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server at multiple levels. When there are
overlaps, what level of IT policies take priority? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. User
B. Group
C. Server
D. Domain
E. Corporate
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three of the following features are new Calendar application enhancements introduced with
BlackBerry Device Software 5.0 and BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0? (Choose three.) Tosee the
Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Free/Busy Availability Lookup
B. Forward Calendar Entries
C. Calendar Attachment Support
D. Synchronization of public and private contacts
E. Create a new calendar entry from the BlackBerry device
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which three of the following roles are available by default in BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 role
based administration? (Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. Enterprise Administrator
B. Junior Help Desk
C. Senior Help Desk
D. Database Administrator
E. Senior Enterprise Administrator
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which three email platforms support BlackBerry Collaboration Service? (Choose three.)
To see the Acronym list click the ?Exhibit? button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Client for use with Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 and Microsoft
Office Communications Server 2007
B. BlackBerry Client for IBM Lotus Sametime
C. BlackBerry Client for Novell GroupWise Messenger
D. BlackBerry Client for Microsoft Sharepoint
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of total BlackBerry smartphone users (CAL's) that the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server can handle before it is recommended that a second BlackBerry Enterprise Server
instance be added to the BlackBerry Domain? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. 50
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2000
E. 2500
Answer: D

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NO.10 Why would someone login to the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager.? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. To add their account to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. To synchronize their S/MIME certificate
C. To set an enterprise activation password
D. To modify the BlackBerry Attachment Server settings
E. To modify their wireless PIM sync settings
Answer: C

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NO.11 Web-based access to BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 is a function of which component? (Choose
one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
B. BlackBerry Router Service
C. BlackBerry Controller Service
D. BlackBerry Administration Service
E. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
F. BlackBerry Mobile Data Service
Answer: D

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NO.12 DRAG DROP
What is the correct message flow for an email message going from the mailbox to the BlackBerry
smartphone?Place the steps in the correct order by dragging them from the left to the right.
Answer:

NO.13 Which two of the following are basic functions of the BlackBerry Mobile Data Service? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Allows organizations to deliver corporate data wirelessly
B. Enables the system administrator to manage BlackBerry smartphone policies
C. Incorporates the push delivery model and advanced security features for application
deployment
D. Allows BlackBerry smartphone users to manage applications installed on their BlackBerry smartphone
through the BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements describe the SRP credentials used by the active and standby
instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server in a high availability environment? (Choose one.)
Tosee the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use a different SRP ID and
authentication key.
B. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID and
authentication key.
C. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID but
different authentication keys.
D. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use different SRP IDs but the
same authentication key.
E. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is automatically assigned an SRP ID or
authentication key.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two BlackBerry Enterprise Server components CANNOT be installed on a separate computer?
(Choose two.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
C. BlackBerry Router Service
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
E. BlackBerry Attachment Service
F. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-872
Exam Name: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0 Developer Certified Professional Exam, Part II)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which of the following is a valid method to restrict the amount of records returned from SHOW
WARNINGS.?
A. SHOW WARNINGS LIMIT
B. SHOW WARNINGS LIMIT
C. limit can not be used with show warnings
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Using column prefix indexing helps reduce
A. The amount of time to write a query
B. The number of results returned
C. The amount of disk I/O needed
D. The amount of disk space needed
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements are true?
A. The MylSAM storage engine should be preferred when you expect many reads and few updates to
occur
B. The MylSAM storage engine should be preferred when you expect a mix of many reads and many
updates to occur
C. The InnoDB storage engine should be preferred when you expect many reads and few updates to
occur
D. The InnoDB storage engine should be preferred when you expect a mix of many reads and many
updates to occur
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which of the following are valid optimization techniques?
A. Rewrite queries to use indexes
B. Use EXPLAIN
C. Use ORDER BY
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following best describes how a column prefix index works and why its an advantage?
A. A Column prefix allows for a shorter index, making it read less from disk,
B. A Column prefix allows for a shorter index name, making less code to be written.
C. A Column prefix is another name for a left-most prefix, which is usefully with multi-column indexes.
Answer: A

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NO.6 For maximum efficiency in join operations of one column from each of two tables, which of the following
statements regarding indexes are true?
A. In a LEFT JOIN such as table1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table1 .a = table2.b, the column b in table2
should always be indexed
B. A LEFT JOIN would not benefit from either of the participating columns being indexed
C. In an INNER JOIN, either, but not both, columns participating in the join should be indexed
D. In an INNER JOIN, both columns participating in the join should be indexed
E. An INNER JOIN would not benefit from either of the participating columns being indexed F. In a LEFT
JOIN such as table 1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table 1 .a = table2.b, the column a in table 1should always be
indexed
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which of the following describe situations when MySQL generates warnings?
A. When it is not able to completely fulfill a request.
B. When a system-level error occurs.
C. When an action has possible unintended side-effects.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Consider the following statement: show COUNT (*) warnings what would be the result of executing this
statement?
A. An error would be returned, as this is not valid syntax.
B. The number of current warnings would be returned.
C. The total number of warnings server-wide would be returned
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following best describes the major trade-offs for MylSAM fixed-length types vs.
variable-length types, respectively?
A. Fixed-length are slower, but require less disk space, as variable-length are faster, but require more disk
space.
B. Fixed-length are faster and require less disk space, as variable-length are slower and require more
disk space.
C. Fixed-length are faster, but require more disk space, as variable-length are slower, but require less disk
space.
D. Fixed-length are slower and require more disk space, as variable-length are faster and require less
disk space.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When executing multi-row operations, what should be the first thing you look for to see if anything
unexpected happened?
A. Warning/Error Count.
B. Warning/Error Codes.
C. Warning/Error messages.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C-BOWI-30
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.x)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 139 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which method can you use to change the object qualification of an object within Web
Intelligence Rich Client?
A. In the Query panel, select the qualification.
B. In the Document Properties, select the qualification.
C. In Query View, right-click and select the qualification.
D. Select the object, right-click and select the qualification.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two are benefits of using breaks? (Choose two.)
A. Creates a navigation map
B. Makes the table block easier to read
C. Splits the block into smaller table blocks
D. Enables the use of subtotals in one block
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which BusinessObjects Enterprise tool supports Offline Mode logins?
A. InfoView
B. Java Panel
C. Interactive Panel
D. Web Intelligence Rich Client
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two properties can you set in the hyperlink dialog box when you create a hyperlink to a
document?
(Choose two.)
A. Refresh on open
B. Color and font style for the link
C. Drill level for the target document
D. Link to a specific area in the document
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two search criteria are valid when using Delegated List of Values? (Choose two.)
A. a*
B. *a
C. a%
D. %a
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object
should you use to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A. Sum
B. Detail
C. Measure
D. Dimension
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two are benefits of creating queries from existing queries? (Choose two.)
A. Improved query security
B. Accurate duplication of query parameters
C. Improved performance of query execution
D. Reduced creation time for complex reports
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which three statements about the If() function are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Values within the function must be in quotes.
B. The function can be used to create a variable.
C. The function can contain an aggregate function.
D. Then and Else keywords can be used within the function instead of the semicolon.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 Which operator should you use to control the output context of a calculation that is relevant
to the different environment levels within your document?
A. In
B. Out
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which four Report Elements can you select from the Templates tab of Web Intelligence?
(Choose four.)
A. Data
B. Report
C. Tables
D. Charts
E. Free-standing cells
Answer: B,C,D,E

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