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Exam Code: 250-400
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 185 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which solution is included with Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0?
A. Help Desk
B. backup Exec
C. pcAnyi4iere
D. Carbon Copy
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator wants to install an operating system, boot-critical drrvers, and a particular piece of
software on a new machine. Which solution allows me administrator to accomplish this?
A. Deployment Solution 6.9
B. Deployment Solution 70
C. Software Management Solution
D. PC Transplant
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.4 An administrator is installing two applications Into the Virtualization Solutions (SVS) layer Application 1
installs on sever1, server2, and server3, Appllcation2 Installs on server1, and server4 How many
Managed Delivery policies are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which type of tile must me Deployment Console user select *tiile creating a PC Transplant task to
capture a computers personality?
A. .pbt
B. .xml
C. .zip
D. .exe
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are two valid reasons for implementing a Managed Software Oelwery policy rather man a Quick
Delivery task'? (Select two.)
A. Software installation state enforcement Is required.
B. Software relationships are required.
C. Immediate softwaredelwery is required.
D. Distinguishing between physical and virtual software is required.
E. Online software update checking Is required
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 What does me Application Management Component of Inventory Solution enable an administrator to
accomplish?
A. identil'y application usage on a particular computer
B. manage applications from either a white list or a black list
C. compare changes in files and the registry between two computers
D. back up registry keys from two different computers
Answer: C

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NO.8 An end user requires delivery of a new application in a Software \'lrtualization Solutions (SVS) layer
and the administrator is unavailable. Which delivery method should the end user utilize?
A. Quick Delivery
B. Software Portal
C. Managed Delivery
D. Package Delivery
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two relationships within me Software Catalog entry impact a Managed Software Delivery policy?
(Select two.)
A. supersedes
B. inherits
C. updates
D. requires
E. modifies
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which two solutions enable an administrator to back up a workstation and then install an application on
mat same wor5tatiOn (Select two)
A. Real-Time System Manager
B. Software Management Solution
C. Recovery Solution
D. Inventory Solution
E. Wise Package Studio Pro
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Which type of PC Transplant file determines the application settings captured using FC Transplant?
A. POT
B. A21
C. .INI
D. XML
Answer: B

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NO.12 A user has an application installed in a Software Virtualization Solution (SVS) layer Alter being used
for several days. the application becomes unstable What should the user do with the SVS layer to
stabilize the application?
A. deactivate and activate me SVS layer
B. resetth SVS layer
C. delete me layer and reinstall me application
D. uninstall the application fromAdthRemove Programs
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is a benefit of Wise SetupCapture?
A. prevents the installation ofmaiware on managed computers
B. detects the installation ofmaiware on managed computers
C. simplifies custom application installations
D. simplifies modification of application installers
Answer: C

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NO.14 When creating a Managed Software Delivery policy, a compliance check is scheduled. The
compliance check is based on which component?
A. the detection rule within the Software Catalog
B. Add/Remove Programs within Windows
C. me Software Inventory Report data for the remote system
D. me file information within the Software Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.15 An administrator wants to create a transform tile for an obscure .msi and then identity machines that
require the software. Which two components should me administrator use to accomplish this task?
(Select two.)
A. Deployment Solution
B. Wise Package Studio Pro
C. Application Management
D. Real-Time System Manager
E. Inventory Solution
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 An administrator is attempting to roil out a new security application on au systems in their environment
Mari users are uninstalling me application once they detect it on their systems. The administrator would
like to enforce the application by reinstalling It whenever it is uninstalled by end users. What delivery
method should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?
A. Quick Delivery
B. Software Portal
C. Managed Delivery
D. Application Management
Answer: C

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NO.17 An administrator wants to upgrade a users computer from Windows XP to Windows Vista.
incorporating PC Transplant The administrator needs to limit the amount of data to be copied across the
network clung this process Which switch setting type allows me administrator to accomplish this?
A. file preservation switches
B. cloning switches
C. image file switches
D. file system switches
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 component allows an administrator to track computer
resources before an AltEfls Agent is installed?
A. Patch Management
B. Application Discovery
C. Handheld Management
D. Network Discovery
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two products are included In Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

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NO.20 An administrator has been tasked to upgrade an application on 6.000 computers. The application must
be available in exactly 30 days The 6.000 computers will continue using the current application until then.
Which method will cause the least impact on me network on the date the application needs to be available
A. import a Software Virtualization Solution layer on the computers now and activate the layer in 30 days
B. import and activate a SoftwareWtualizatlon Solution layer on the computers and schedule it To run in
30 clays
C. distribute me application and schedule it to runWi 30 days
D. distribute the application in increments of 200 computers starting tomorrow
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-050
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which two event details are included in a standard Host Integrity log file? (Choose two.)
A. client Host Integrity status
B. name and state of each requirement
C. error messages
D. checked parameter
E. http 200 ok
Answer: AC

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NO.2 How many network interface(s) need to be configured for a Gateway Enforcer appliance?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which settings are specific to Antivirus and Antispyware predefined requirements?
A. application startup command
B. signature file check
C. execute an installation package
D. allow user to cancel remediation
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the default context in which programs are run when using the patch requirement in a Host
Integrity policy?
A. in logged-in user context
B. in system context
C. in administrator user context
D. in domain-user context
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three types of data can be used with LAN Enforcers for the authentication sequence? (Choose
three.)
A. machine GUID
B. Policy ID
C. Host Integrity state
D. location awareness settings
E. user group
Answer: ACD

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*

NO.6 To verify that a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager has Symantec Network Access Control
functionality, what change to the Policies tab would an administrator see?
A. Host Integrity
B. Host Checking
C. Host Compliance
D. Host Inspection
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which custom requirement utility allows an administrator the ability to choose an informative icon to
display to the end user?
A. run a script
B. log message
C. show message dialog
D. run a program
Answer: C

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NO.8 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Where are Symantec Network Access Control client packages placed on the Symantec Endpoint
Protection Manager?
A. Client/Policies
B. Admin/Install Packages
C. Policies/Policy Components
D. Clients/Install Packages
Answer: B

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NO.10 When choosing to run a script as an action in a custom requirement, which file format(s) can be used
to write the script?
A. only BAT or INI formats
B. only Pearl scripting
C. a custom file format with the .symc extension
D. any executable format recognized by Windows
Answer: D

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NO.11 How can the client be enabled to write the Host Integrity script to the disk?
A. set a condition in a custom requirement to write the script
B. set it in the Host Integrity policy under Advanced settings
C. enable debug logging through the registry on the endpoint
D. enable from the Clients tab under the Endpoint Machines Properties
Answer: C

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NO.12 What must an administrator specify in a custom requirement that is different from a predefined
requirement?
A. the client's policy manager domain
B. the client's group assignment
C. the policy's ending Host Integrity state
D. the policy's log entries
Answer: C

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NO.13 How should the logical condition of an IF/THEN/ENDIF statement be reversed?
A. add an AND statement
B. enable the Reverse Logic Processing Engine for the requirement
C. use the Transform function of the extended scripting commands
D. toggle the NOT function on the IF portion of the statement
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the first step to troubleshoot a custom requirement in a Host Integrity policy?
A. run the Host Integrity check several times
B. carefully examine the logic structure of the conditions
C. examine the Security Compliance Summary reports
D. check the properties of the endpoint from the Clients page
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is AVScript.js used for?
A. client status
B. to write to the system log
C. to start the status monitor
D. Host Integrity
Answer: D

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NO.16 When is Host Integrity Checking enabled on a Symantec Network Access Control (SNAC) client?
A. when the Host Integrity policy is configured and distributed to the client
B. when the SNAC client is updated by LiveUpdate for content
C. during the heartbeat authentication process with the Enforcer
D. automatically when an upgrade to SNAC is made
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which two default user accounts are created on an Enforcer? (Choose two.)
A. administrator
B. admin
C. root
D. user
E. guest
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Where does an administrator view compliance log files?
A. from the specific client in the Network Access Control log
B. from the Policy Manager console in the Monitors page
C. from the Policy Manager console in the Admin page
D. from the Enforcer debug logs
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether an antivirus product is
up-to-date on a client machine?
A. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the client
B. check the date of the associated signature data files(s) on the LiveUpdate server
C. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the IT database
D. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) in the policy manager
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether a product is running on a
client machine?
A. check that the service is running in the services snap-in
B. check that the service is running
C. check that the service has been stopped
D. check that the service has been registered
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-099
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A, D

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NO.3 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.4 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.6 An organization needs to move all PST files into Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9).
Their users require constant access to their PST files during the migration. What is the recommended
migration method?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate and Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which task needs to be running for a PST Client-Driven Migration to be successful?
A. PST Client Task
B. PST Locator Task
C. PST Migrator Task
D. PST Collector Task
Answer: C

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NO.8 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

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NO.9 An administrator needs to migrate a large number of PST files located in users' Outlook profiles and on
a shared drive. Which two PST migration methods will accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Client-Driven Migration
B. Server-Driven Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. Locate-Migrate Wizard
E. Automatic Migration
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

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NO.11 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C, D

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NO.12 Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What
is a benefit of changing the default conversion type to text instead of HTML for certain document types
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. increases the performance of searching
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
On the Exchange Policy Properties page, which two items will be archived using the policy shown in the
exhibit? (Select two.)
A.all items older than four weeks
B. all items larger than 1 MB
C. all items older than four weeks and larger than 1 MB
D. all items older than three months
E. all items older than four weeks and smaller than 1 MB
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for
Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A, D

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NO.17 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A, B

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NO.19 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B, C

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Exam Code: ASC-029
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Enterprise Security 2010)
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NO.1 When defining location switching criteria, which two can be used? (Select two.)
A. MAC address
B. Wins Server address
C. host name
D. NIC description
E. OS type
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 An administrator has deployed LAN enforcer within the network and enabled 802.lx on all switch ports.
How can the administrator ensure that printers directly connected to the switch are still accessible, and
also prevent computers bypassing LAN enforcement should they be connected to the printer ¯ s ne t w o r k
outlet?
A. install Symantec Endpoint Protection on the printers
B. add the MAC addresses of the printers to the Trusted Hosts list in the advanced settings of the
Enforcer Group properties
C. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mab enable
D. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mac and the list of printer MAC
addresses
Answer: C

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NO.3 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A. likelihood of occurrence
B. order of occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A, D

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NO.4 At an administrator ¯ s fir s t m ee ti ng w it h a cus t o m e r t hey r ea li ze t ha t t he ir cus t o m e r i s expec ti ng t he
product to do a certain function that the administrator is sure it cannot accomplish. What should the
administrator ¯ s r esponse be?
A. call the account team
B. escalate to the administrator ¯ s m anage r
C. provide alternative solutions
D. call the product manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 With an 802.lx enabled switch, the SNAC client communicates with the switch at which layer of the OSI
reference model for EAP authentication?
A. Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
B. Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)
C. Layer 3 (Network Layer)
D. Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ASC-094
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Storage Management Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What are the limitations when upgrading CVM and CFS to version 5.1?
A. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the same versions of software; rolling upgrades
with mixed versions of software are only supported from 5.1 onwards.
B. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the latest MP for the current version prior to the
upgrade to 5.1.
C. Rolling upgrades can only be performed from version 5.0 to 5.1; rolling upgrades from 4.1 are not
supported
D. Rolling upgrades can only be performed if the diskgroup and filesystem versions remain unchanged
until all of the systems have been upgraded to the same version of software
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have been asked to review a customer's VVR configuration, and found that the Rlink has the
following attributes: srlprot=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps What is the risk to the customer's
application if the SRL overflows?
A. Application writes will be stalled which may cause the front-end application to fail or hang.
B. The bandwidth_limit will be increased so the SRL can drain, and this may overload the network and
cause application performance problems.
C. The size of the SRL will be increased, leaving less space if the application volumes need to be
extended.
D. VVR will start to use the DCM, which requires a replay of the DCM, during which, Write Order Fidelity
for the application data is lost.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 Why is it important to upgrade Storage Foundation diskgroups and filesystem versions after upgrading
the version of software on a system?
A. Storage Foundation will be unable to access the files residing on diskgroups and filesystems that have
an older version than the binaries.
B. Older diskgroup and filesystem versions are only supported during a rolling upgrade.
C. Upgrading the diskgroup and filesystem versions will enable the full capabilities of the product to be
deployed.
D. It eliminates warnings being sent to the console due to the out-of-date diskgroup and filesystem
versions.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two capabilities of Symantec Common Product Installer (CPI) are not supported by the
web-based installer for Storage Foundation 5.1? (Select two.)
A. installing Storage Foundation
B. uninstalling Storage Foundation
C. upgrading Storage Foundation
D. configuring Storage Foundation for Oracle RAC (SFRAC)
E. adding license keys for Storage Foundation
Answer: C, D

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NO.10 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-134
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec EndPoint Protection 12.1 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from
connecting to the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be
prevented from working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint
Protection 12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and
Intrusion Prevention technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all
communications from an attacking host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection
layers against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.4 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason
for this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: BD

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NO.8 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.9 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.10 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the
performance of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most
granular level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: CD

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NO.14 According to Symantec, what is a botnet?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms
like W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.17 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

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13.Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.19 An administrator creates a new domain in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console. How
can the administrator copy policies from the old domain to the new domain?
A. Export the policy from the old domain and import it into the new domain.
B. Copy the policy in the old domain and paste the policy into the new domain.
C. Copy the old domain's policy XML file into the folder for the new domain.
D. Back up the old domain's database and restore it into the new domain.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to
bypass traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technology blocks such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.7 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 200 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content in near-realtime
from Symantec?
A.LiveUpdate
B.LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C.Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D.Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Symantec Security Information Manager Series Appliance installs which operating system by default?
A.Solaris
B.Windows
C.SUSE
D.Red Hat
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which database houses incidents and summary data?
A.Oracle
B.MySQL
C.MSSQL
D.IBM DB2
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which component escalates security events into incidents?
A.rules
B.events
C.incidents
D.tickets
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is Device-level aggregation?
A.parsing data with data sensors
B.grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C.forwarding event data to the appliance
D.event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the specified minimum hardware requirements for installing and running the Symantec
Security Information Manager Console?
A.1 GB RAM and 1 GB disk space
B.1 GB RAM and 512 MB disk space
C.512 MB RAM and 1 GB disk space
D.512 MB RAM and 103 MB disk space
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the critical business assets management feature?
A.It enables automatic identification and prioritization of security threats that impact business-critical
applications.
B.It obtains an overview of business assets.
C.It makes it possible to change collectors' configurations to meet business assets needs.
D.It provides a visual picture of where critical business assets are located.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are all on-box collectors?
A.PIX, UNIX Syslog and Data Leakage Prevention
B.Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C.PIX, Snort and Symantec Web Gateway
D.Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Control Compliance Suite
Answer: B

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NO.9 What information is necessary to properly size a deployment?
A.hard drive space, events per second and geographic locations
B.events per second,collector types and incident-to-event ratio
C.hard drive space, incidents per second and collector types
D.events per second, geographic locations and event-to-incident ratio
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the hard drive specifications for the hardware?
A.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 5)
B.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 10)
C.6 drives (RAID 5)
D.2 drives (mirrored)
Answer: A

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NO.11 What information must be obtained prior to product deployment and configuration of the Symantec
Security Information Manager appliance?
A.which on-box collectors are appropriate for installation
B.the number of nodes found in the customer's infrastructure
C.the number of security events per day the appliance will handle
D.the air-conditioning and power requirements
Answer: A

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NO.12 On which two operating systems can the Symantec Security Information Manager Agent be installed?
(Select two.)
A.Solaris 9
B.Windows 2000
C.Centos
D.IBM AIX 5
E.HP-UX 11
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Which OS listed does hardware used for the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) image
support?
A.SUSE
B.Centos
C.Redhat
D.SE Linux
Answer: C

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NO.14 Where do Symantec Security Information Manager collectors send events?
A.Event Disposition
B.Event Archive
C.Event Reporting
D.Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the difference between Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box and off-box
collectors?
A.Off-box collectors are installed on the SSIM products and on-box collectors are installed on the
appliance.
B.On-box collectors are installed prior to SSIM software installation and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
C.On-box collectors are automatically installed with the SSIM software and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
D.Off-box collectors are installed on the appliance and on-box collectors are installed on assets.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which third-party software components support LDAP for users, roles, and configurations?
A.IBM Directory Server
B.Microsoft Active Directory Server
C.IBM DB2 8.1
D.IBM DB2 8.2
Answer: A

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NO.17 What does the Correlation Engine analyze events against once all rules are properly defined?
A.the rule criteria, create triggers, and correlate conclusions into incidents
B.false positives, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
C.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
D.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and send conclusions to the database
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which component sends events to the Event Service for processing?
A.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) collector
B.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box collector
C.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) off-box collector
D.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) agent
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following vendor hardware is recommended to use with Symantec Security Information
Manager (SSIM)?
A.IBM
B.NEC
C.Dell
D.Hitachi
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which tab on the Information Manager Console allows you to view threat and vulnerability information?
A.Rules
B.Dashboard
C.Reports
D.Intelligence
Answer: D

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