2014年4月30日星期三

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Exam Code: 250-512
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5
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Exam Code: ST0-029
Exam Name: Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS)
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NO.1 Which two high-level components make up the Symantec Endpoint Protection solution? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection
B. Symantec Critical System Protection
C. Symantec Security Information Manager
D. Symantec Network Access Control
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Which two are characteristics of Proactive Threat Protection? (Select two.)
A. detects unknown threats
B. inspects encrypted network traffic
C. evaluates process behavior
D. blocks attacker's IP address
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 client administration?
A. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 has been updated to resemble
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
B. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 centralized administration is now provided exclusively through
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
C. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 now includes fields and options
that require that Network Threat protection is enabled.
D. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 can now be administered through either its own console or the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a benefit of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. A single client provides all functions, which reduces the resource usage footprint.
B. Solaris is a supported platform for the client.
C. The number of required management consoles is reduced from five to three, which simplifies
administration compared to previous versions.
D. Proactive Threat Protection runs in real-time.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Symantec Network Access Control method supports basic and transparent mode for 802.1x?
A. Gateway Enforcer
B. Self Enforcement
C. DHCP Enforcer
D. LAN Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two do you need in order to add a Replication Partner? (Select two.)
A. local domain user and password
B. administrator name and password
C. local domain administrator name and password
D. replication server name and port
Answer: BD

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NO.7 What are three features of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select three.)
A. Application Performance Management
B. Client Firewall
C. Application and Device Control
D. Endpoint Change Control
E. Intrusion Prevention
Answer: BCE

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NO.8 When using the Push Deployment wizadr, which two methods can you use to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A. browse through Windows Networking
B. import a file containing IP addresses
C. specify a UNC path
D. import a file containing MAC addresses
E. import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: AC

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Exam Code: 250-402
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Exam Code: 251-312
Exam Name: Admin of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
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Exam Code: ST0-030
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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

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NO.5 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

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NO.6 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

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NO.7 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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Exam Code: ST0-147
Exam Name: Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: 250-407
Exam Name: Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x
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Exam Code: ST0-074
Exam Name: Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS)
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NO.1 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the
Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new
application.
What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.3 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application
from running on company computers.
Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.4 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints
across a company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification
Server is slower during the inventory scan times.
Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to reduce the processing impact on the
Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weeklyschedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be
updated. Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have
been updated, the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the
database.
However, after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an
old date instead of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because
several policies were modified at the sametime.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though
the agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog.
There is a duplicate for a software resource.
The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and selected the
option to merge duplicate resources.
What will happen to the duplicate entries in the Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the
duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate isdeleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the
newest timestamp isdeleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry
with the oldest timestamp isdeleted.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire
2099" has been installed on company desktops.
The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the company standard browser
toolbar and needs to be removed immediately.
The administrator has also been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that
they can receive a private email about the situation.
Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an
application.B.Inventory Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application isexecuted.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Thread t = new Thread(new Threads2());

NO.2 }

NO.3 t.start();

NO.4 public static void main(String[] args) {

NO.5 }

NO.6 }
Which two can be results? (Choose two.)
A. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
B. run.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
C. End of method.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
D. End of method.
run.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
E. run.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
End of method.
Answer: D, E

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2. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible for more than two threads to deadlock at once.
B. The JVM implementation guarantees that multiple threads cannot enter into a
deadlocked state.
C. Deadlocked threads release once their sleep() method's sleep duration has expired.
D. Deadlocking can occur only when the wait(), notify(), and notifyAll() methods are
used incorrectly.
E. It is possible for a single-threaded application to deadlock if synchronized blocks are
used incorrectly.
F. If a piece of code is capable of deadlocking, you cannot eliminate the possibility of
deadlocking by inserting
invocations of Thread.yield().
Answer: A, F

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3. Given:
7. void waitForSignal() {
8. Object obj = new Object();
9. synchronized (Thread.currentThread()) {
10. obj.wait();
11. obj.notify();
12. }

NO.7

NO.8 Given:
1. public class Threads2 implements Runnable {

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NO.1 When deleting a Schema, which e*Gate service must be stopped?
A. The Control Broker service for the Schema to be deleted
B. The e*Gate Registry Service
C. The Lightweight Installer Service
D. None of the above
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 When upgrading from previous versions of e*Gate, a user may be prompted (by the
installation wizard) to back up RDB files, SeeBeyond recommends backing up these
files because:
A. They contain information about the e*Gate security system
B. They contain configuration information for Participating Hosts and Schemas installed
on the system
C. They contain all configuration information for a single Schema
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 The file system threshold is available only when a function of the:
A. Registry Service is customized
B. Installer Service is running
C. Control Broker Service is configured to control the hard drive
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which command line utility will start the Control Broker?
A. stcregutil.exe
B. stcinstd.exe
C. stccb.exe
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where are the Schema related files maintained?
A. eGate/Server/registry/<SCHEMA NAME>.rdb
B. eGate/Server/registry/repository/Schemas.rdb
C. eGate/Server/registry/repository/<SCHEMA NAME> directory
D. eGate/client/monk scripts/common directory
Answer: A, C

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NO.6 Files that have advisory locks placed upon them by the Team Registry feature may
be "unlocked" when:
A. The user who checked out the file promotes the file
B. The user who checked out the file, removes the file from the Sandbox without
promoting it
C. The user exits the e*Gate Editor without ever saving the file
D. None of the above
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.7 The default Schema:
A. Contains templates of configuration files and Monk scripts
B. Contains templates of ETD files
C. Contains user created and modified files for all users
D. None of the above
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 The e*Gate product is primarily used for Application Integration via:
A. Moving messages between internal & external message queues
B. Transformation, application and data integration, and event propagation to/from
internal/external systems
C. Programming in Monk and Java programming languages
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.1 The following SAS program is submitted:
proc means data = sasuser.houses std mean max;
var sqfeet; run;
Which one of the following is needed to display the standard deviation with only two decimal places?
A. Add the option MAXDEC = 2 to the MEANS procedure statement.
B. Add the statement MAXDEC = 7.2; in the MEANS procedure step.
C. Add the statement FORMAT STD 7.2; in the MEANS procedure step.
D. Add the option FORMAT = 7.2 option to the MEANS procedure statement.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A raw data record is listed below:
----|----10---|----20---|----30
Printing 750
The following SAS program is submitted:
data bonus;
infile 'file-specification';
input dept $ 1 - 11 number 13 - 15;
<insert code here>
run;
Which one of the following SAS statements completes the program and results in a value of 'Printing750'
for the DEPARTMENT variable?
A. department = trim(dept) || number;
B. department = dept || input(number,3.);
C. department = trim(dept) || put(number,3.);
D. department = input(dept,11.) || input(number,3.);
Answer: C

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NO.3 The contents of the raw data file FURNITURE are listed below:
----|----10---|----20---|----30
chair,,table
chair,couch,table
The following SAS program is submitted:
data stock;
infile 'furniture' dsd;
input item1 $ item2 $ item3 $;
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable named ITEM2 in the first observation of the output
data set?
A. table
B. ,table
C. . (missing numeric value)
D. ' ' (missing character value)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which one of the following is true when SAS encounters a data error in a DATA step?
A. The DATA step stops executing at the point of the error, and no SAS data set is created.
B. A note is written to the SAS log explaining the error, and the DATA step continues to execute.
C. A note appears in the SAS log that the incorrect data record was saved to a separate SAS file for
further examination.
D. The DATA step stops executing at the point of the error, and the resulting DATA set contains
observations up to that point.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A raw data record is shown below:
07.an2002
Which one of the following informats would read this value and store it as a SAS date value?
A. date9.
B. ddmonyy9.
C. ddMMMyy9.
D. ddmmmyyyy9.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button to view a listing of the SASUSER.HOUSES data set.
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc report data = sasuser.houses nowd headline;
column style price;
where price lt 100000;
<insert DEFINE statement here>
define price / mean width = 9;
title;
run;
The following ouput is created by the REPORT procedure:
Which one of the following DEFINE statements completes the above program and produces the above
output?
A. define style / order width = 9;
B. define style / group width = 9;
C. define style / across width = 9;
D. define style / display width = 9;
Answer: B

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NO.7 The SAS data set named WORK.TEST is listed below:
Which one of the following SAS programs created this data set?
A. data work.test;
capacity = 150;
if 100 le capacity le 200 then
airplanetype = 'Large' and staff = 10;
else airplanetype = 'Small' and staff = 5;
run;
B. data work.test;
capacity = 150;
if 100 le capacity le 200 then
do;
airplanetype = 'Large';
staff = 10;
end;
else
do;
airplanetype = 'Small';
staff = 5;
end;
run;
C. data work.test;
capacity = 150;
if 100 le capacity le 200 then
do;
airplanetype = 'Large';
staff = 10;
else
do;
airplanetype = 'Small'; airplanetype = 'Small';
staff = 5;
end;
run;
D. data work.test;D.data work.test;
capacity = 150;
if 100 le capacity le 200 then;
airplanetype = 'Small'; airplanetype = 'Small';
staff = 5;
else;
airplanetype = 'Large'; airplanetype = 'Large';
staff = 10;
run;
Answer: B

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NO.8 The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.total;
set work.salary(keep = department wagerate);
by department;
if first.department then payroll = 0;
payroll + wagerate;
if last.department;
run;
The SAS data set WORK.SALARY, currently ordered by DEPARTMENT, contains 100 observations for
each of 5 departments.
Which one of the following represents how many observations the WORK.TOTAL data set contains?
A. 5
B. 20
C. 100
D. 500
Answer: A

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2014年4月29日星期二

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NO.1 You are using SmartUpdate to fetch data and perform a remote upgrade of an NGX Security Gateway.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. If SmartDashboard is open during package upload and upgrade, the upgrade will fail.
B. A remote installation can be performed without the SVN Foundation package installed on a remote NG
with Application Intelligence Security Gateway
C. SmartUpdate can query the SmartCenter Server and VPN-1 Gateway for product information
D. SmartUpdate can query license information running locally on the VPN-1 Gateway
Answer: B

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NO.2 You plan to migrate an NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 SmartCenter Server on Windows to
VPN-1 NGX R65. You also plan to upgrade four VPN-1 Pro Gateways at remote offices, and one local
VPN-1 Pro Gateway at your company's headquarters. The SmartCenter Server configuration must be
migrated. What is the correct procedure to migrate the configuration?
A. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD on the SmartCenter Server, select "Upgrade".
2. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
3. Reinstall all gateways using NGX R65 and install a policy.
B. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD in the SmartCenter Server, select "Export".
2. Install VPN-1 NGX R65 on a new PC using the option "Installation using imported configuration"
3. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
4. Upgrade software on all five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
C. 1. Copy the $FWDIR\conf directory from the SmartCenter Server.
2. Save directory contents to another file server.
3. Uninstall the SmartCenter Server, and install a new SmartCenter Server.
4. Move the saved directory contents to $FWDIR\conf replacing the default installation files.
5. Reinstall all gateways using VPN-1 NGX R65 and install a Security Policy.
D. 1. Upgrade the five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
2. Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, using the NGX R65 CD.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You want to upgrade an NG with Application Intelligence R55 Security Gateway running on
SecurePlatform to VPN-1 NGX R65 via SmartUpdate. Which package(s) is(are) needed in the Repository
prior to upgrade?
A. SecurePlatform NGX R65 package
B. VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 package
C. SecurePlatform and VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 packages
D. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Power/UTM packages
Answer: A

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NO.4 Concerning these products: SecurePlatform, VPN-1 Pro Gateway, UserAuthority Server, Nokia OS,
UTM-1, Eventia Reporter, and Performance Pack, which statement is TRUE?
A. All but the Nokia OS can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
B. All but Performance Pack can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
C. All can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
D. All but the UTM-1 can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What action can be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. remote_uninstall_verifier
B. upgrade_export
C. mds_backup
D. cpinfo
Answer: D

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NO.6 What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. Get all Gateway Data
B. Reboot gateway
C. Preinstall verifier
D. Fetch sync status
Answer: D

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NO.7 What physical machine must have access to the UserCenter public IP when checking for new
packages with SmartUpdate?
A. VPN-1 Security Gateway getting the new upgrade package
B. SmartUpdate installed SmartCenter Server PC
C. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
D. SmartUpdate GUI PC
Answer: D

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NO.8 What tools CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. cpinfo
B. SecurePlatform Web UI
C. Nokia Voyager
D. snapshot
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which statement is FALSE?
A. The groups assigned to your user account determine the data you can view on dashboards.
B. A best practice is to create groups to meet strategicIT objectives rather than business objectives.
C. In the Groups tree,Service Provider Global Groups contain items not explicitly associated with a
tenant IP domain.
D. Users can use the section of the Groups tree below their permission groups to change the data
context for summary or group dashboards.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When you create or edit a monitoring profile, you can use the Change Detection Rate option
to set the frequency at which the Data Aggregator checks for changes. When you set the rate of
detection, the Automatically Update Metric Families check box is selected by default. What happens
if you clear this check box?
A. The Change Detection Rate field will no longer be editable.
B. The automatic updating of metric families will continue unless you also change settings for
specific metric families.
C. The Data Aggregator will continue to automatically monitor new components but will no longer
retire old components.
D. The Events Display dashboard will need to be monitored and updates will need to be performed
manually on the Polled Metric Families page.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do you launch the New Vendor Certification wizard?
A. On the Inventory tab,right-click a device and click Import MIB.
B. In the Data Aggregator source,on the Vendor Certifications page,click New.
C. Use Web Services to import the vendor NIB and assign it to a particular metric family.
D. On the Vendor Certification dashboard,right-click an unassigned vendor certification and assign it
to an unsupported device.
Answer: B

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NO.4 While logged in as a tenant administrator you begin creating the user accounts for that tenant.
You want to assign a specific role to an account. However, the role does not appear to be among the
available roles. What is the likely reason for this?
A. The role has not been created.
B. The role was assigned to another tenant.
C. You do not have permission to see the role.
D. Only CA Technologies Services can perform this action.
Answer: A

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NO.5 As the Global Administrator of a CA Performance Management instance that hosts three
tenants, you are only able to see two of the five available SNMP profiles. Why are you unable to
view all five profiles?
A. Because in this instance,two profiles are associated with the tenant you are currently
administering
B. Because Global Administrators typically need to refresh the screen before the full set of profiles
appear
C. Because the Global Administrator must change an entry in the SNMP_549.xml file to see all
SNMP profiles
D. Because the tenant administrators must change the permission of the SNMP profiles that they
manage to enable the Global Administrator to see them
Answer: A

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NO.6 To help ensure that CA Performance Center operations run smoothly, which guidelines should
you follow? (Choose three)
A. Check log files daily or at least weekly.
B. Purge log files manually every two weeks to avoid performance and space issues.
C. Test the Vertica database for consistency at least once a week using DBVisualizer.
D. Only change logging levels in the log4j.xml files for a service if advised to do so by CA
Technologies support.
E. If you have access to the CA Performance Center server,run the grep-i command with the
appropriate keyword to search multiple log files for error instances.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 System Administrator, Cliff Warner, asks you how he can prevent the discovery of non-SNMP
enabled devices in his infrastructure. Which advice should you offer?
A. Disable ICMP on the Data Collectors.
B. Change the ICMP packet size to zero.
C. Disable ICMP discovery in the Discovery profiles.
D. Continue to permit the discovery of all devices because CA Performance Management only
monitors SNMP-based devices by default.
Answer: C

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NO.8 If you register a Data Aggregator data source, a system group named Collections will appear in
CA Performance Center. Which feature characterizes collections?
A. They are always modifiable.
B. They are generally only used for report organization.
C. They are not tenant-specific but are always global in scope.
D. They are primarily used to control monitoring behavior using rules specified in monitoring
profiles.
Answer: A

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NO.1 The Console utility ________.
A. displays log files
B. enables root access
C. invokes the command line
D. controls monitor configuration
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which utility can gather information about a wide range of system components?
A. Setup Assistant
B. System Profiler
C. Keychain Access
D. Internet Connect
E. Network Diagnostics
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the best way to resolve most application/frameworks mismatches in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. Create a new user
B. Repair permissions
C. Run Software Update
D. Reinstall the application
E. Archive and install Mac OS X
Answer: C

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NO.4 What happens when Mac OS X 10.4's Safe Relaunch feature sets aside an application's preference
file?
A. It is moved to the Trash
B. It is renamed application.plist.old
C. It is renamed application.plist.saved
D. It is moved to the ~/Library/Recovered Preferences/ folder
E. It is moved to the ~/Library/Preferences/Recovered Preferences/ folder
Answer: C

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NO.5 On a Mac OS X v10.4 computer you see the message shown in the exhibit. What does this message
indicate?
A. A kernel panic has occurred.
B. An application has stopped responding.
C. You have pressed the power button while the computer was powered up.
D. You have connected a bus-powered device that requires more power than is available.
Answer: A

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NO.1 .About which THREE system properties will System Profiler provide information? (Choose
THREE.)
A. installed PCI cards
B. default network printer
C. configured share points
D. connected USB devices
E. connected FireWire devices
F. status of personal file sharing
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 .Which THREE tasks can you perform with Disk Utility? (Choose THREE.)
A. Erase a CD-RW disk.
B. Determine disk usage by user name.
C. Verify and repair a UFS-formatted disk.
D. Create an encrypted partition on a hard disk.
E. Discover details about top-level directories on a FireWire disk drive.
F. Discover details about a FireWire disk drive such as size and configuration.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.3 .Which command is found on Mac OS X v10.3, as well as on other versions of UNIX?
A. system_profiler
B. open
C. ls
D. ditto
Answer: C

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NO.4 .Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts.
B. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user data if the password is lost.
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk
image.
Answer: D

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NO.5 .Mac OS X v10.3 supports which kinds of VPN connections? (Choose all that apply.)
A. PPoE
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. NAT
E. P2P
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 .If Robert disables AppleTalk in the Directory Access utility on his iMac running Mac OS X v 10.3,
what is the result?
A. Robert cannot print to AppleTalk printers from his iMac.
B. Users on other computers cannot connect to Robert's iMac via AFP.
C. Robert iMac no longer discovers servers via AppleTalk.
D. Robert cannot connect to an AFP file server from his iMac.
Answer: C

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NO.7 .Dynamic service discovery protocols on Mac OS X v10.3 include ________. (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Active Directory
B. Rendezvous
C. AppleTalk
D. NetInfo
E. LDAP
F. SMB
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.8 In Mac OS X v10.3, you CANNOT use the Finder's "Connect to Server" command to select
________.
A. your iDisk
B. SSH servers
C. WebDAV servers
D. AFP servers
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which protocol can iCal clients use to access iCal service calendar files on an OS X Lion Server
computer?
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP
Answer: E

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NO.2 Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below.
Using AFP, you copy a file from your Mac into the shared folder shown above. Members of the staff group
report that they are unable to edit the file.
Assuming no ACLs have been configured, what is the MOST LIKELY reason for this issue.?
A. Everyone permissions apply to the staff group because the staff group's GID has been changed.
B. The file is locked.
C. The group permission for the file is set to read-only.
D. Members of the staff group do not have write access to /tmp/_caches on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How does VPN service support OS X Lion Server security?
A. VPN determines whether an incoming packet is a legitimate response to an outgoing request, or part of
an ongoing session.
B. VPN provides strong authentication, and encrypted data transport between devices.
C. VPN provides a framework for the authentication methods available to the server.
D. VPN blocks the normal connection failure notification to the source of a failed connection if the failed
connection was sent to a closed port on the server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement is true about Open Directory locales in OS X Lion Server?
A. Locales integrate the Open Directory domain with Active Directory forest names.
B. Locales organize Open Directory servers according to the subnet that they service.
C. Administrators can define locales to allow users to interact with services in the language of their
choice.
D. Locales affect which folders, if any, appear in the Network view on a Mac client computer.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which protocols can a computer use to connect to the VPN service running on an OS X Lion Server
v10.7.3 (or later)?
A. Cisco IPSec and SSL VPN
B. PPTP and Cisco IPSec
C. L2TP and PPTP
D. PPTP and SSL VPN
E. L2TP and Cisco IPSec
Answer: C

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NO.6 What token does a client computer present to OS X Lion Server in order to authenticate to a
kerberized service running on the server?
A. A ticket-granting ticket (TGT) obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
B. A service ticket obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C. The user's password
D. A client-generated service ticket
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement best describes the wiki in OS X Lion Server?
A. A series of date-stamped and chronologically ordered entries on a website
B. A collaborative website that can be edited within a web browser
C. A website that is configured to provide access to mail accounts
D. A folder on a website, with permissions that restrict access to the files it contains
Answer: B

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NO.8 How do you create a configuration profile for a group managed on an OS X Lion Server computer
located at server17.pretendco.com?
A. In Workgroup Manager, connect to server17.pretendco.com, select the group, and click Add
Configuration.
B. In Server Tools, open Profile Manager, connect to server17.pretendco.com, select the group in the
Library, and edit the profile.
C. In Server Admin, connect to server17.pretendco.com, select Profile Manager, select Groups, select the
target group, and then click Add (+).
D. In a web browser, go to https://server17.pretendco.com/profilemanager/, select Groups in the sidebar,
select the target group, click the Profile tab, and then click Edit.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two are functions of Switch 40x0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise
networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric
design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of
network attacks
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups
supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three are advantages of using 3Com's XRN Distribution Resilient Routing
(DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast
routing
C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60
seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table
to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the
router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on
the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port
1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface Module? (Choose three)
A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service
or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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