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Exam Code: M2050-242
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Exam Code: C2040-441
Exam Name: IBM Social Software & Unified Communications Fundamentals
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NO.1 How would an administrator rebuild the placecatalog.nsf database on an IBM Lotus Quickr
server?
A. run the command load qptool rebuild -placecatalog
B. run the command load qptool recreate -placecatalog
C. bring down the server, delete the placecatalog.nsf database at the operating system level, and
restart the server
D. log into Lotus Quickr using a browser, go to the Site Administration link, and click the Recreate
PlaceCatalog button
Answer: C

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NO.2 By default, which address accesses the IBM Cognos server Content Manager?By default, which
address accesses the IBM Cognos server? Content Manager?
A. http://Host_Name/Context_Root/servlet
B. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/servlet
C. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/cognos
D. http://Host_Name:Port/CongosServer/Context_Root/servlet
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does not require a connection with the IBM Sametime Media server?
A. IBM DB2
B. Sametime Proxy server
C. Sametime Meeting server
D. Sametime System Console
Answer: B

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NO.4 If the administrator needs to fix an IBM Lotus Quickr place, the QPTOOL server command can
be
used to lock it. What is the correct syntax to lock a place?
A. load qptoollock placename
B. load qptool placename lock
C. load qptool lock placename
D. load qptool lock -p placename
Answer: D

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NO.5 IBM Sametime Mobile is supported on which three platforms? (Choose three.)
A. iOS
B. Brew
C. MeeGo
D. webOS
E. Android
F. BlackBerry
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.6 Along with Login ID, which two options are required so that a developer can use the User SPI
to
retrieve more information about a person? (Choose two.)
A. Title
B. Address
C. Date of Birth
D. E-mail Address
E. Unique User ID
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 Which component is required to deploy the IBM Sametime Web client?
A. Sametime Proxy
B. Sametime Media
C. Sametime Connect
D. Sametime Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.8 What could improve chat performance in a large deployment?
A. decrease the IBM WebSphere logging level
B. add more servers to the Meeting server cluster
C. separate the Media Manager components into individual servers
D. increase the MaxUsersPort setting in the Microsoft Windows server registry
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2010-569
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Exam Code: C2010-571
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine V7.5 Implementation
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NO.1 Which statement is true related to applications and the Application Designer?
A. All modifications to applications must be performed with the Application Designer
B. The files necessary to display an application are stored In the MAXAPPFILES table in the
database.
C. The code of a control can be modified with the Application Designer when used in code
configuration
mode.
D. Every application has a presentation XML that contains the information required to build
the
application's user interface
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement explains the relationship of an E-audit fitter to the Database
Configuration application?
A. Using the Database Configuration application allows the creation of E-audit filters for main
objects only.
B. The type of information that requires these E-audit filters can be refined by using the E-
audit filter on
the Audit section of the Object tab within the Database Configuration application.
C. Included in the Database Configuration application is an action item called Enable E-audit
Filter which
allows the selection of the appropriate auditing requirements for a given database object
D. E-Audit filters are created for database objects in the Audit application and enabled using
the E-audit
filter selection dialog on each database object within the Database Configuration application.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An item set is required to generate data records. What are two of the records? (Choose
two.)
A. People
B. Assets
C. Locations
D. Item Master
E. Organizations
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 The Conditional Expression Manager is accessed through which system module?
A. Security
B. Integration
C. Administration
D. System Configuration
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which property prints a stack trace for fetch results?
A. mxe.db.fetchStack
B. mxe.db.fetchResult
C. mxe.db.fetchStackLogLimit
D. mxe.db.fetchResultLogLimit
Answer: D

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NO.6 A PDF needs to be added to Tivoli process automation engine. Where can this be
done.?
A. Manage Files Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
B. Manage Library Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
C. Manage Folders Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
D. Manage Documents Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where are attached document folders associated?
A. Documents application
B. any Single-Page application
C. System Configuration application
D. the application that allows attached documents
Answer: A

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NO.8 How is the Condition Expression Builder accessed?
A. select Condition Expression Builder from the Administration module menu
B. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application toolbar
C. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application details
view
D. select Condition Expression Builder from the Conditional Expression application Select
Action menu
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HC-711
Exam Name: HCNA Huawei Certified Network Associate - Constructing Basic Security Network (HCNA-CBSN)
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Exam Code: HC-224
Exam Name: Huawei Certified Datacom Professional - Fast Certification Exam
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NO.1 Which of the following is not supported by policy-based route for specifying the data
forwarding path?
A. Source address
B. Port number
C. Destination address
D. Packet length
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the maximum bits of a Class B address can be used for subnet?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16
D. 22
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP .
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP .
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available
in STP .
D. Same as STP , the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A device can be assigned an IP address 192.168.13.175, with the mask being 255.255.255.240.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which are 802.1x authentication modes? (Select 2 Answers)
A. EAP relay mode
B. Proxy mode
C. EAP termination mode
D. Remote mode
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which of the following indicators are performance indicators of the Eudemon? (Select 3
Answers)
A. Throughput of large-sized or small-sized packets
B. Number of the interface
C. VPN performance
D. Process delay
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU
parameter setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0.
C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 If the peer default-route-advertise command is used to advertise a default BGP route to peers,
how will this operation affect the local BGP routing table?
A. An inactive default route will be generated in the local BGP routing table and this route will not
be delivered to the IP routing table.
B. An active default route will be generated in the local BGP routing table and this route will be
delivered to the IP routing table.
C. The local BGP routing table will not be affected and no default route will be generated in the local
BGP routing table.
D. A default route will be generated in the local BGP routing table and whether to deliver this route
to the IP routing table depends on route selection results.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-K38
Exam Name: Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions and Services
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Exam Code: HP2-T24
Exam Name: Technical Introduction to the HP Server Portfolio
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NO.1 A customer is looking for a backup solution that will help them reach their Recovery Time
Objective (RTO). Their goal is to increase their restore performance capability.
How does an HP StoreOnce solution fit into this customers RTO strategy?
A. It automatically re-hydrates data after initial deduplication.
B. It automatically re-hydrates data before initial deduplication.
C. It automatically defragments data after initial deduplication.
D. It automatically defragments data before initial deduplication.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which customers are the best fit for selling consulting services for HPStoreOnce?
A. those who are expanding their current
B. HP solution to those who are experiencing issues in their backup environment
C. those who have a business requirement to maintain their configuration
D. those who are implementing HP 3PAR StoreServ into their environment
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.3 A customers business requires that they De able to survive a harctware failure. They need a
backup strategy that eliminates the need to re-create backup jobs as a result of a failure.
Which two integrated HP StoreOnce solution features enable the customer's requirements to be
met? (Select two.)
A. clustered design
B. federated deduplicatjon
C. autonomic groups
D. mixed workload support
E. autonomic restart
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 What are two advantages of the HP 3PAR StoreServ controller scale-out approach compared to
an EMC core-scale-out approach? (Select two.)
A. You can dedicate each storage solution to a different purpose.
B. Performance of the data storage tier Is not adversely affected during migrations.
C. You can add capacity without requiring additional space, power, and cooling.
D. Performance drops only 25% if a controller fails.
E. You can add performance without taking the array offline.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 A customer asks for an explanation of how HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Reclamation technology
can help them manage their growing storage space consumption.
Which two features should you describe? (Select two.)
A. Management follows the same flow and process as thick reclamation, and it is possible to toggle
back and forth with one click.
B. When zeros are removed, they are not included with snapshots or copies.
C. When a snapshot, full copy, or LUN is deleted, the space is immediately available without
requiring a physical capacity format.
D. Reserving unused capacity is not necessary because it is returned to a common pool.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 A customer tells you that they are considering EMC instead of HP because HP StoreOnce does
not support global deduplication.
What should you tell this customer to overcome this objection?
A. Unlike EMC global deduplication, HP federated deduplication supports RAID protection through a
wide choice of RAID levels.
B. HP federated deduplication is superior to EMC global deduplication because it offers seamless
data movement across the enterprise.
C. EMC global deduplication sacrifices high availability, and risks losing access to the entire global
deduplicated data pool.
D. The EMC hash matching process works on a smaller subset of data, sacrificing efficiency.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer is looking for an effective way to connect their heterogeneous servers and storage.
Which HP storage offering would you discuss?
A. HPStoreEasy
B. HP StoreFabric
C. HP StoreOnce
D. HPStoreAII
Answer: A

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NO.8 Why should a customer choose the HP SN8000B Director as the foundation of their
StoreFabric enterprise solution?
A. because they want ISL trunking at no extra cost
B. because they want an extended fabric for no extra cost
C. because they need scalability to 512 8-Gbps ports in a single-switch domain
D. because they need up to 384 16-Gb Fibre Channel ports
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-W104
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NO.1 What is a key feature of the HP TippingPoint NGIPS Platform?
A. Automated, scalable threat protection, leading threat research
B. Load balancing across a number of IPS devices to increase in-line throughput
C. Host-based anti-virus protection
D. Decrypting of web application traffic
Answer: A

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Reference:http://summit.ee/ 2014 /wp-content/uploads/ 2014 / 01 /HP-Enterprise-Security-Products.pdf
(slide 11)

NO.2 What is an HP TippingPoint unique selling point?
A. Market-leading Network Behavior and Anomaly Detection (NBAD)
B. Market-leading security research and intelligence with DV-Labs. Fortify SRG, HP-Labs. HP Security
Research
C. Purpose-built software with very mature IDS Deep-Inspection Engine
D. Market-leading Anti-Virus systems (AV)
Answer: A

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Reference: http://www.ndm.net/ips/hp-tippingpoint/nx-platform-ngips

NO.3 What is the security approach that HP ESP adopted from Lockheed-Martin's Computer
Emergency Response Team to disrupt the adversary?
A. The Internal Emergency Response Team
B. The Destructor
C. The Kill Chain
D. Detect it. Contain it. Stop it
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6539ENW.pdf(page 2)

NO.4 What is the name of the platform HP developed to share threat intelligence securely,
confidentially, and in real-time?
A. HP Security 365x24
B. HP Threat Research Help Line
C. HP Enterprise Security 999
D. HP Threat Central
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.hpl.hp.com/news/ 2013 /

NO.5 Which cyber adversaries are the most efficient and effective in exploiting company assets?
A. Security administrators
B. Business partners
C. Disgruntled customers
D. Nation states, hacktivists, and cyber criminals
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the three core areas where HP TippingPoint delivers unique capabilities and
business benefits?
A. Cost reduction, regress mitigation, strategic advantage
B. Cost reduction, risk mitigation, strategic advantage
C. Cost increase, risk avoidance, strategic advantage
D. Risk mitigation, cost neutralization, design advantage
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is an HP TippingPoint unique selling point?
A. Very high Return on Investment (ROI)
B. Very high Proof of Concept (PoC)
C. Low Mean-time to Failure (MTTF)
D. Low Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which third-party organization is collecting statistics about vulnerability research and lists HP
TippingPoint as the leader?
A. SANS - Vulnerability Tracking
B. Frost & Sullivan - Vulnerability Tracker
C. NIST-Vulnerability Tree
D. CERT - Vulnerability Triage
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which statement about a decision building meeting is true?
A. It should be chaired by the senior responsible owner.
B. The owner, responsible for implementation, has already been determined by the MoV team
before the meeting.
C. Decisions from the meeting should form the basis of the proposal implementation plan
D. Attendees should be limited to the senior responsible person, project manager and project
sponsor
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which describes a purpose of the MoV Study Handbook?
A. It allows Senior Managers to objectively review proposals to determine which should be
B. implemented
C. It ensures that the Study Team are all working from the same level of information
D. It assigns Proposal Owners to all development proposals
E. It helps to ensure that the requirements of the Project Sponsors and end users are aligned
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is MOST APPROPRIATE when estimating costs where the scope is uncertain?
A. Wait until the scope is certain and then estimate
B. Estimate only those areas where the scope is certain
C. Start with an initial best guess estimate and update it as more information becomes
known
D. Develop a cost model and refine the scope to meet the cost model
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which will be included in the MoV Project Plan?
A. Identification of suitable candidates to lead and participate in the Studies
B. Key attributes of a proposed Study
C. Constraints applicable to a proposed Study
D. A draft function diagram
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why should MoV align with an organisation's objectives?
A. To minimise the costs of delivering the project
B. To maximise benefits arising from the project
C. To meet stakeholder expectations
D. To avoid maximising value within one project that could diminish value across the wider
programme
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which method provides a good checklist for communication during an MoV study?
A. Brainstorming
B. Five Ws and an H
C. Function Analysis
D. Cost/Worth
Answer: B

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NO.7 How are Value Drivers used when creating a Value Tree?
A. The Value Tree is derived from the Value Profile after prioritising the Value Drivers
B. Value Drivers describe the physical elements of the project in the Value Tree
C. Primary Value Drivers are linked to statements describing design considerations which in turn are
linked to a statement of objectives
D. Value Drivers are linked (as roots) to a statement of SMART objectives (the tree trunk)
Answer: D

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NO.8 When should MoV be embedded into an organization using a formal/top-down approach?
A. The embedding of MoV is required throughout the investment decision.
B. When the scale of MoV applications become large and frequent.
C. When organizations anticipate that their MoV needs will be minimal.
D. When people engaged on other work wish to add MoV to their set of skills.
Answer: B

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NO.1 How does an IBM Domino server determine which documents to replicate for an application?
A. Only those documents marked for replication by the user are replicated.
B. The Domino server checks each document for the "$Has_Replicated" field.
C. The Domino server checks replication history and replicates only those documents that have
changed since the last replication.
D. The LastUpdated property of the application is checked. The Domino server replicates only
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Answer: C

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NO.2 Mary Beth and Kathleen work in the same department. From time to time, they need to see
what
the other one is doing when they show as 'busy' in their calendar. What minimum level of
delegation would Mary Beth need to give Kathleen so that Kathleen can view calendar entries?
A. Automatic forwarding
B. Read, create, edit and delete for Mail
C. Read access for Calendar, To Do and Contacts
D. Read access to Mail, Calendar, To Do and Contacts
Answer: C

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6. James has enabled the Recipients Icons option and notices that no icon is displayed for a
message. Why would no icon be displayed for a message where he is the recipient?
A. James is in the BCC field. When the recipient is in the BCC field, no icon is displayed.
B. The message was sent using an alias name. Messages using an alias do not reflect an icon.
C. James is in the CC field. Only messages where the user is in the To field will reflect the icon.
D. James is also the sender. Messages where the recipient is also the sender do not reflect an
icon.
Answer: A

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7. Max has an application that her company's Chicago office uses on their Chicago server. She
would like her company's Boston office to access the same application on their Boston server but
needs for changes to each application to be kept in sync. How should Max create the application
on the Boston server?
A. Max should create a new copy of the application on the Boston server.
B. Max should create a new replica of the application on the Boston server.
C. Max should create a new application based off the template on the Boston server.
D. Max should create a new application based off the Single Copy Template on the Boston server.
Answer: B

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8. If a valid mail rule action does not work, which action type may have been disabled by the
system
administrator?
A. send copy to
B. copy to folder
C. delete message
D. change importance to
Answer: A

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9. Which of the following statements describes the IBM Domino Roaming Server?
A. The Domino Roaming Server is always a mail server.
B. The Domino Roaming Server is always an application server.
C. The Domino Roaming Server is always the home mail server.
D. The Domino Roaming Server can be, but is not always, the home or mail server.
Answer: D

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10. If a mobile device is lost or stolen, an administrator can issue a remote wipe command to
remove
all sensitive data from the device. What application would the administrator use to perform the
action?
A. Traveler.nsf
B. TravConf.nsf
C. IBM Notes Traveler Remote Administrator
D. IBM Domino Administrator client
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which server feature is responsible for name changes and database ACL updates?
A. Name Change Process
B. Replication
C. Extended ACL
D. Administration Process
Answer: D

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NO.4 In order for AdminP to work properly, what must every IBM Domino database have?
A. an AdminP certifier
B. an AdminP xACL entry
C. an AdminP retry interval
D. an Administration server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Robin is developing an XPage application, but she mistakenly closed the Controls and Data
views
in IBM Domino Designer. How can Robin reopen these views?
A. From the Window menu, select XPages under the 'Open Perspective' submenu.
B. Enable the 'XPages views' option on the XPage tab of the Application Properties.
C. In the Domino Designer Preferences on the XPage section, check the Controls and Data view
options.
D. In the Application Navigator, right-click on the XPage application and enable the Controls and
Data view options.
Answer: A

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NO.1 If the server has IP 192.168.1.50 and the client has IP 192.168.1.100, and GDC is listening on
port
6400 on the client machine, which is the correct value for the FGLSERVER variable?
A. 192.168.1.50:0
B. 192.168.1.100:0
C. 192.168.1.50:6400
D. 192.168.1.100:6400
Answer: B

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NO.2 What URL would you enter to call the "myApp" application defined in group "demo" through
the "myWebServer" Web Server?
A. http://myWebServer/gas/wa/r/myApp
B. http://myWebServer/gas/wa/r/demo/myApp
C. http://myWebServer:6394/gas/wa/r/demo/myApp
D. http://myWebServer:6394/gas/wa/sua/demo/myApp
Answer: B

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NO.3 A Web Service Application is started with three pool elements in its configuration: START=2
MIN_AVAILABLE=2 MAX_AVAILABLE=4 If each process takes 10 seconds to run, and 5
incoming process requests are received in the course of 6 minutes, at most how many DVM's will
be started?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.4 When using the Genero Application Server, what is the preferred method for implementing
load balancing (to increase capacity)?
A. The Genero Application Server is multi-threaded and handles load balancing automatically.
B. Deploy multiple instances of the Genero Application Server on different servers, and use
thirdparty
tools to implement load balancing.
C. Deploy multiple instances of the Genero Application Server on a multi-CPU host. Configure
load balancing among these various instances
within the http.conf file.
D. Place the Web Server and the Genero Application Server dispatchers on one host, and the
VMProxies (and the DVMs they instantiate) on
separate hosts. Modify the http.conf file to specify the location of the hosts where the VMProxies
reside.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which product contains the Genero Report Viewer?
A. Genero Web Client
B. Genero Desktop Client
C. Genero Report Designer
D. Genero Dynamic Virtual Machine (DVM)
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the default template_id value used by the GAS xcf file?
A. "_default"
B. "defaultgwc"
C. "gwdefault.css"
D. "gwcomponents.css"
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which attribute should be set if you need to align fields on the form that are inside different
GROUP containers?
A. STYLE on the field widgets
B. JUSTIFY on the field widgets
C. STYLE on the group containers
D. GRIDCHILDRENINPARENT on the group containers
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which method does NOT belong to the os.path class?
A. size()
B. rename()
C. separator()
D. getProgramDir()
Answer: D

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NO.1 A new Impact Server will be installed using the console mode of the installer
application. Which
statement is true?
A. All default ports must be available.
B. The installer will not check if the required ports are available.
C. A starting point of ports can be selected if the default ports are not available.
D. The installer will adapt the required ports if some are tested as in use during the
installation.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tool will start a policy from the command line?
A. nci_crypt
B. nci_policy
C. nci_trigger
D. nci_import
Answer: C

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NO.3 In order for IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 to start using the ObjectServer for
authentication, the server
must be configured so that it can map the roles that the application exposes to groups and/or
users
managed in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus. Which file must be edited for this purpose?
A. omnibus.conf
B. omnibususers
C. guiserver.setting
D. objectserver.conf
Answer: C

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NO.4 What must be done to receive an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus event when a policy run
raises any
unknown exception?
A. use the action function exceptionnameOand add policy code to insert the event between
the brackets
B. use handle exceptionnameO in the policy and add policy code to insert the event between
the brackets
C. create an ExceptionHandlerPolicy that inserts the event and define this in the Policytogger
configuration
D. configure the Self-Monitoring service to log exceptions into the ObjectServer defined in the
service
configuration
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which command line function should be executed prior to applying a product fix or
upgrading the IBM
Tivoli Netcool/lmpact Server as best practice.?
A. nci_crypt
B. nci_policy
C. nci_trigger
D. nci_export
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact roles in Tivoli Integrated Portal can be used to
control users
access to navigation pages in the GUI and to permit users to unlock their own files?
A. impactSuperUser. impactFullAccessUser, and impactOpViewUser
B. impactAdminUser, impactReadWriteUser, and impactOpViewUser
C. impactAdminUser, impactFullAccessUser, and impactOpViewUser
D. impactAdminUser, impactFullAccessUser, and impactReadOnlyUser
Answer: C

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NO.7 How is the name of the IBM Tivoli N etc oo I/Imp act Server Instance on the console
identified?
A. check the IBM Installer utility litslll.sh to show the Impact Server Instance Names that have
been set up
B. check the TIPProfile/logs/server1 directory - the SystemOutlog holds the Impact Service
Instance
name
C. use the nci_server command line utility to show the Impact Server Instance Names that
have been set
up
D. check the impact/etc directory - all Impact Server Instance-related files use the Instance
Name in the
beginning of every file name
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given only command line access, where is it verified that a newly started IBM Tivoli
Netcool/lmpact
Server instance is registering itself as a slave or primary in a cluster?
A. in the server.log file
B. in the netcool.log file
C. in the systemOut.log file
D. using the nci_server utility
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2180-031
Exam Name: IBM Worklight Mobile Foundation Technical Sales Mastery v1
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NO.1 When should the Shell development approach be considered?
A.There are only two developers
B.The company wants to create a number of mobile applications sharing a common native code
base and authentication mechanism
C.The company wants to create a native iOS and Android application, but its resources are
limited
D.The company has distributed development teams situated on different continents that must
share the source code
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a client side push API?
A.WL.Client.Push.isPushSupported()
B.WL.Client.Push.isSubscribed()
C.WL.Client.Push.unsubscribe()
D.WL.Client.Push.poll()
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of these adapter properties is mandatory?
A.adapter name
B.display name
C.description
D.ip address
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is messages.js file used for?
A.This file contains the texts of application pop-up prompts
B.This file contains the texts of error messages that application may show
C.This is an internal framework file.It is used to store system messages for debugging purposes
D.This file contains strings that can be used for application elements
Answer: D

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NO.5 Once a Shell developer completes developing her Shell components, what is the proper way to
distribute it to inner application developers?
A.Zipping the Worklight project and emailing it to inner application developers
B.Committing the Worklight project to a Source Control Management system and telling inner
application developers to use source code from it
C.The Shell developer should not distribute the Shell component to inner application developers.
They should send their inner applications to her in order to build them
D.Sending the .wlshell Shell bundle file to inner application developers
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which authenticators are supported out of the box? (Choose three)
A.Header authentication
B.Persistent cookie authentication
C.Form-based authentication
D.Kerberos authentication
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Assuming it is not overridden manually, in which case will the isSuccessful property of the
procedure invocation result be true?
A.Worklight server is not accessible
B.Back end that adapter tries to connect to is not accessible
C.Internet is not available on a mobile device
D.Specified procedure does not exist in adapter
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which OS uses an HTML generated tab-bar?
A.iOS
B.Android
C.Blackberry
D.Windows Phone
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which parameter should be modified if the memory consumption of the Data Collector
is problematic?
A.memory.limit
B.internal.memory.limit
C.dc_collector_mem_limit
D.datacollector.memory.limit
Answer:B

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NO.2 What is the attribute group name for the WebSphere Agent Events?
A.KYNAPP
B.KYNPREV
C.KYNCONTNR
D.KYNLOGANAL
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding configuration of monitoring of a WebSphere
Application Server
running on an IBM i 6.1 POWER System using IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for
Application
Diagnostics V7.1?
A.Data Collector (DC) must be installed on IBM i machine and Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Agent (TEMA)
on the remote host
B.TEMA must be installed on IBM i and DC on the remote host
C.both TEMA and DC must be installed on the IBM i system
D.TEMA and DC must be installed on the remote host
Answer:A

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NO.4 What must be installed in order for a customer to use IBM Tivoli Composite
Application Manager for
Application Diagnostics V7.1 (ITCAM for AD) to perform deep-dive monitoring for their
WebSphere
Applications?
A.ITCAM for AD Agent for WebSphere Applications
B.ITCAM for AD Data Collector for WebSphere Applications
C.ITCAM for AD Extended Agent for WebSphere Application
D.ITCAM for AD Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent for WebSphere Applications
Answer:A

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NO.5 When configuring IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application
Diagnostics V7.1 Agent for
WebSphere Applications Data Collector, which two types of components can be selected to
monitor?
(Choose two.)
A.WebSphere CIS Server
B.WebSphere Data Server
C.WebSphere HTTP Server
D.WebSphere Process Server
E.WebSphere Application Server
Answer:DE

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NO.6 When viewing a stack trace in the Managing Server Visualization Engine, where is the
method found
which is causing the slow down in performance?
A.at the top of the trace
B.on page 2 of the trace
C.at the bottom of the trace
D.on the last page of the trace
Answer:A

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NO.7 How is IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1
Managing Server
started and stopped on UNIX?
A.ms-start.sh, ms-stop.sh
B.am-start.sh, am-stop.sh
C.am-ctl.sh start, am-ctl.sh stop
D.ms-ctl.sh start, ms-ctl.sh stop
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which three parameters are needed when configuring the J2EE Collector for Oracle?
(Choose three.)
A.Oracle Home
B.Application Server Hostname
C.Application Server IP Address
D.Application Server Control Password
E.Application Server Control Host Name
F.Application Server Control User Name
Answer:DEF

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