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Exam Code: A4120-784
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM PureFlex Technical Expert V1
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Exam Code: P2070-073
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Exam Code: C2180-608
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0 Deployment
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NO.1 A clustered WebSphere Process Server (WPS) production environment consists of a
remote messaging
cluster with multiple active messaging engines (ME) configured for high throughput. During
the testing of
an application which uses MQ JMS export for in-take of messages, the integration developer
has found
out that the messages were arriving on the backend EIS application at random order which
was not
desirable. This was not the observed behavior when the application was tested in the
Universal Test
Environment (UTE) within WebSphere Integration Developer (WID).
Source Application --------> MQ JMS Export ----------> EIS Application
What is the combination of actions to reconfigure the resources in the production
environment in order to
achieve the expected behavior?
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 3
Answer: A

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NO.2 In a company all the applications deployed in a WebSphere Process Server network
deployment
environment extensively leverage asynchronous messaging with JMS bindings. There is a
requirement to
resubmit the messages in case of infrastructure failures or planned shutdown.
What is the suggested message reliability level that could be proposed in this situation.?
A. Assured persistent
B. Reliable persistent
C. Reliable non-persistent
D. Best effort non-persistent
Answer: A

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NO.3 WebSphere Process Server (WPS) V7.0 introduces a new Service Component
Architecture (SCA)
container. Which of the following changes in the architecture result in improved performance?
A. There is no dependency for an EJB container for WPS V7.0 applications.
B. The new Business Object Runtime Framework replaces the old Business Object
framework.
C. Code generation, validation, and packaging is fully covered during the application
deployment.
D. Applications for WPS V6.2 and previous releases are automatically migrated to V7.0
during
deployment.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A retail company has the requirement to make frequent changes to a long running
MyProcessDiscount business process as newer versions of that process are introduced due
to changing
business needs. What approach should a deployment professional adopt to meet this
requirement?
A. Stop the older version of the MyProcessDiscount process template from the Integrated
Solutions Console (ISC), install the application containing the newer version of the business
process
template.
B. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, select all the running instances with
name
MyProcessDiscount business process, then choose the Migrate option to migrate all
instances to the
currently valid version of the business
process template.
C. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, if you see any running instances of
older version
of MyProcessDiscount process template,
wait till all the instances of that version of the template are completed, then remove the older
version of
the business process template and install the newer version of the business process
template.
D. Install the application containing the newer version of MyProcessDiscount process
template, then
using the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, monitor the state of the running
process instances
and, when execution is in the appropriate place in the flow of the business process, select the
business
process instances based on the older template only to migrate to the newer version.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A company has deployed many applications accessing the same backend services.
Many of the
applications share the same WSDL and Business Objects. New applications to be deployed
in the near
future will use updated backend service definitions. In addition, the memory usage has
dramatically
increased over the last deployments and may prevent new application deployments on the
same
environment. Which of the following recommendations would a deployment professional
MOST likely
provide?
A. The development team must review the applications and provide a single module for the
backend
access. Shared WSDL and Business Objects
can be deployed with the new application.
B. The development team should identify common artifacts used by the application. A shared
library can
be deployed independently and
referenced by the applications.
C. The environment must be prepared for new applications by increasing the heap size of the
servers or
new servers must be added to the
environment to share the workload.
D. The system administrator can deploy new applications including all libraries needed.
During the
deployment the libraries of other applications with the needed WSDL and Business Objects
can be
referenced as a shared library.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A deployment professional is installing a new business process application. The
deployment
professional is using a script installation with the installInteractive option so that they are
prompted for
values during the installation process. What is the reason for this installation approach?
A. The interactive configuration script provides an audit log of the installation for revision
control
purposes.
B. Installation with the interactive configuration script is faster than using the Integrated
Solutions Console
(ISC).
C. Some configuration values must be specified which are not available using the Integrated
Solutions
Console (ISC) wizard interface.
D. When configuring with an interactive script, it is not necessary to specify information about
the
application required data sources.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A deployment professional is performing a review of the audit and logging practices
being used. One of
the items under review is the current level of logging configured for the Human Task
Manager. The site
database administrator requires that any changes made which affect the amount and type of
data being
stored to the database must be reviewed and approved prior to implementation. Which of the
following log
settings would impact the data stored to the database?
A. Audit logging
B. Failed event logging
C. Task history logging
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) logging
Answer: A

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NO.8 A deployment professional is installing an application which uses business processes
in a clustered
WebSphere Process Server environment. The Business Process Choreographer (BPC)
container has
previously been configured. During which phase of the installation is the application
validated?
A. During the installation phase on the node agent.
B. During the installation phase on the deployment manager.
C. During the configuration phase on the application server.
D. During the application start phase on the application server.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2170-647
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Exam Code: C2140-135
Exam Name: Rational Host Access Transformation Services (HATS) v7.1
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Exam Code: C2030-283
Exam Name: Foundations of IBM Cloud Computing Architecture V3
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NO.1 On which environment(s) are HATS Web applications, developed using the HATS
Toolkit, supported to
be deployed and run?
A. Eclipse RCP and Lotus(R) Expeditor Client
B. IBM WebSphere application server production runtime
C. IBM and non-IBM Portal Server production runtime
D. any J2EE-compatible application server available on the market
Answer: B

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NO.2 How might a developer use a shared global variable?
A. share a variable value between the sessions of two different users
B. share a variable value that can be used in a future session
C. share a variable value between two different applications being accessed by a single user
D. share a variable with a non-HATS Web application
Answer: C

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NO.3 To help with debugging HATS applications on a test or production system, a display
terminal window
can be displayed. Which statement is FALSE about the display terminal window?
A. Turning on the display terminal option can seriously affect performance or overload the
server.
B. The display terminal functions can be turned on using the extended HATS application
button
Standard.?
C. It is possible to interact with the host application using the host screen in the terminal
window.
D. The display terminal functions can be turned on for any new host connections by selecting
the Enable
Display Terminal box on the Trace Settings panel.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What would most improve end user response time for a HATS application?
A. decreasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
B. using fast 3270e with a host supporting contention resolution
C. increasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
D. using fast 3270e with a 5250 host
Answer: B

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NO.5 In the Lotus Expeditor Client environment, HATS rich client applications can be
managed, deployed,
and controlled in a number of ways. What is NOT a supported environment?
A. Lotus Expeditor Server, which contains the Device Manager Server component
B. WebSphere Portal, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to
applications
C. Eclipse update site, which provides provisioning and updating using a standard Web
server
D. WebSphere Application Server, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access
to
applications
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5
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Exam Code: C2180-183
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Mesage Broker V7.0, Solution Development
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Exam Code: C2010-574
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V6.1
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NO.1 During a Data Collector install, what would cause the application server you are monitoring to fail?
A. PMI being turned off
B. Managing Server not running
C. Virtual Frame Buffer not running
D. an error in the generic JVM arguments
Answer: D

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NO.2 What must you do when installing WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2 Managing Server while
using a Network Deployment WebSphere environment?
A. use the default values provided (hostname, and port number 8880)
B. use the localWebSphere information (hostname, and port number)
C. use the Deployment Manager information (hostname, and port number)
D. clear the hostname and port number fields so that the installer can dynamically derive the correct
hostname and port number
Answer: C

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NO.3 To perform database maintenance, which script should be scheduled to run daily?
A. amctl.sh
B. wdctl.sh
C. run-stats-cmd.sh
D. the data trimmer script
Answer: C

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NO.4 During the embedded DB2 installation, the install logs can be found in what directory?
A. /opt
B. /tmp
C. $AM_HOME/logs
D. $WAS_HOME/logs
Answer: B

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NO.5 With WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2, the database port must be provided. How can you
determine the port that is being used by the DB2 instance?
A. You use the b2 listdb2port command.
B. It is provided when the database is installed.
C. The port is discovered dynamically during the install.
D. You use the b2 getdbm cfg command or viewing /etc/services.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following would allow you to display graphs and charts properly on the WebSphere Studio
Application Monitor (WSAM) V3.2 Managing Server Console?
A. in theWebSphere Administrative Console, go to Application Servers->server_wsam->Process
Definition->Java Virtual Machine->Custom Properties and set property java.awt.headless=true
B. in theWebSphere Administrative Console, go to Application Servers->server_wsam->Process
Definition->Java Virtual Machine->Custom Properties and set property java.awt.headless=false
C. n theWebSphere Administrative Console, go to Application Servers->server_wsam->Process
Definition->Java Virtual Machine->Custom Properties and set property java.awt.headless=xterm
D. in theWebSphere Administrative Console, go to Application Servers->server_wsam->Process
Definition->Java Virtual Machine->Custom Properties and set property
java.awt.headless=/usr/bin/X11
Answer: A

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NO.7 What information is collected at trace Level 2? (Choose three.)
A. CPU information
B. method level trace
C. component level trace
D. last known class name
E. advanced request data
F. page swapping information
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 Which change is made by the WebSphere Studio Application Monitoring V3.2 distributed Data
Collector installer (both GUI and silent)?
A. adding SMF support
B. adding a custom service called "AM Custom Service"
C. creating the user "amuser" in the base operating system
D. sourcing the database user's profile in the profile for the user "amuser"
Answer: B

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NO.1 A customer is considering adding Real-time Compression software to their currently installed
SAN Volume Controller.
Which workload would benefit most from Real-time Compression software?
A. video files
B. database
C. software development
D. encrypted files
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which architectural functionality of the XIV product almost completely eliminates hot spots?
A. RAID 10
B. SSD caching
C. InfiniBand backplane
D. Data distribution algorithm
Answer: D

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NO.3 A new customer to the TS3500 wants to know if the TS3500 they recently purchased has a
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A. One year, 7x24 is the standard warranty.
B. Three years, 9x5 is the standard warranty.
C. Three years, 7x24 is the standard warranty.
D. One year, 9x5 is the standard warranty, with an option to provide three years 9x5.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The Real-time Compression Appliance can bring compression capabilities to which product?
A. XIV
B. HDS USP
C. NetApp FAS3140
D. Storwize V7000 Unified
Answer: C

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NO.5 A new ProtecTIER customer wants to know what the standard warranty is on that system.
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A. One year. 9x5 is the standard warranty.
B. One year. 7x24 is the standard warranty.
C. Three years, 9x5 is the standard warranty.
D. Three years. 7x24 is the standard warranty.
Answer: A

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http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgibin/ssialias?infotype=an&subtype=ca&appname=gpateam
&supplier=897&letternum=ENUS112102 (see terms and conditions)

NO.6 Which feature clearly differentiates XIV from an EMC VMAX in terms of lowering the total
cost of ownership?
A. throughput
B. thin provisioning
C. graphical user Interface (GUI)
D. ability to utilize multiple RAID types
Answer: D

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NO.7 When discussing the SAN Volume Controller's Easy Tier capability with a customer, the sales
specialist mentions that this capability was first developed and utilized in another IBM product prior
to its introduction within the SAN Volume Controller.
Which product is the sales specialist referring to?
A. XIV
B. N7900
C. Storwize V7000
D. DS8000
Answer: C

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Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IBM_SAN_Volume_Controller

NO.8 A customer has several different storage systems from different vendors all connected on a
storage area network. All arrays are at least 80% utilized, and the customer needs additional
capacity. Rack space and power are very limited.
Which SAN Volume Controller concept should a sales specialist emphasize to convince the customer
to purchase a SAN Volume Controller?
A. Compression
B. Deduplication
C. Virtualization
D. Block and file I/O
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2040-410
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development B
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Exam Code: A4040-121
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NO.1 Tyler has designed a viewMobilePage to display a listing of customer names from the
CustomersByName view. During testing Tyler determined that to avoid scrolling he will need to
restrict the number of customer names displayed on the viewMobilePage to ten. How can he do this?
A. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xe:dataView> control.
B. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xp:viewPanel> control.
C. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xp:dominoView> control.
D. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xe:mobileView> control.
Answer: A

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NO.2 John added a Dynamic View Panel to the CustomersViews XPage to switch display to any one
of several views in the Customers application. He set the pageName property to the
CustomerDocument XPage to identify the XPage to open when a customer name is selected from
the displayed view in the Dynamic View Panel control. What must John do to have the selected
customer document open in read mode on the CustomerDocument XPage?
A. For the Dynamic View Panel, set the openDocAsReadonly to "true".
B. Nothing. The selected document in a Dynamic View Panel will by default open in read mode.
C. For the Domino Document data source on the CustomerDocument XPage set the
openDocAsReadonly to "true".
D. Code the onColumnClick event of the Dynamic View Panel control with the Open Page simple
action and set the target property to"openDocument".
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true for the Single Page Application control for use on a mobile XPage?
A. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is <xp:singlePageApp>.
B. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is <xc:singlePageApplication>.
C. The Single Page Application control is used only when the mobile XPage includes a single mobile
page.
D. There must be only one Single Page Application control as the container for all of the Application
Page controls on the mobile XPage.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the Application Layout control?
A. The Application Layout control provides a consistent interface when added directly to each XPage
in an application.
B. To render properly, the Application Layout control must implement one of the oneuiv2.1 themes
or a theme that extends a oneuiv2.1 theme.
C. The Application Layout control includes a total of three facet areas for adding content (left, center
and right columns) and three bar areas foricons, titles, links and drop down menus.
D. When the Application Layout control is enabled for an application each XPage will include a left,
center and right column area with the samedimensions to provide a consistent user interface across
the application.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Davis is concerned that the Extension Library REST Service is not secure. Which is a true
statement?
A. The Extension Library REST service does not honor IBM Notes Domino Readers fields.
B. Access to an Extension Library REST service cannot be accessed without authentication.
C. An Extension Library REST service control honors all native IBM Notes and Domino security
features.
D. An Extension Library REST service can be accessed without authentication regardless of the
database's access control list.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three properties in the Dojo Text Box control are available in the Edit Box control?
(Choose three.)
A. alt
B. trim
C. lang
D. type
E. header
F. inputType
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Michael has designed a mobile application with two mobile pages. For the first mobile page he
set the pageName property to "page1" and for the second mobile page he set the pageName
property to "page2". What server-side simple action can Michael add on the second page to
navigate the mobile application user to the first page when touched?
A. Open Page
B. Open Mobile Page
C. Move To Mobile Page
D. Move To Application Page
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding the Extension Library Tooltip control?
A. A developer is not allowed to place other data components in between the <xe:tooltip> start and
end tags.
B. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer must set
dynamicContent to true.
C. When the position property is set to auto, the tooltip calculates where it should display in
relation to the element on the page.
D. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer does need to set
dynamicContent to false.
Answer: B

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NO.1 A document needs to be created to show the roles that will be defined when deploying
CCMDB.
What is the primary goal when creating this document?
A.create a list of activities to map to roles
B.create a Work Task Structure of activities
C.identify and map roles to the defined tasks
D.create a Task Breakdown Structure of activities
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer wants to implement CCMDB to handle the companys IT Change
Requests. The customer
is considering several supported configurations to better reuse the companys existent
middleware.
Which configurations are valid options for the customer?
A.MS SQL Server as the Database Server
MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
B.Oracle as the Database Server
MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
JBoss Application Server as the J2EE container
C.MySQL as the Database Server
Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
D.IBM DB2 as the Database Server
Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
WebLogic as the J2EE container
Answer: A

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NO.3 When should existing middleware be reused?
A.when reusing existing access policies
B.when a quick CCMDB deployment is top priority
C.when security policies prevent administrator access to new hardware
D.when security policies prevent the creation of a new database or application server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which component of the CCMDB data layer performs the data discovery and loads
data into a CMDB
based on the Common Data Model.
A.TADDM
B.the Maximo Database
C.the Change Management Module
D.the Configuration Management Module
Answer: A

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NO.5 When creating a document to map tasks to roles for a deployment of CCMDB, which
single goal is of
primary importance?
A.create a Role Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
B.create a Task Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
C.create a Work Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
D.create a Responsibility Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the application that contains the impact analysis feature in CCMDB?
A.Work Management
B.Change Management
C.Problem Management
D.Workflow Management
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the Manage CI Hierarchies dialog?
A.to provide scope for CI promotion.
B.to provide mapping for CI promotion.
C.to provide mapping and scope for CI promotion.
D.to provide mapping, scope, and rules for CI promotion.
Answer: C

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NO.8 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.define the level of effort for each task
B.define the roles involved in the process
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: B

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NO.1 Your customer wants to add their HP StoreOnce Backup device to an Active Directory domain.
How can this task be completed?
A. from the StoreOnce WMI, from the NAS menu tree
B. from the CLI, using the system add security command
C. from the StoreOnce WMI, from the Catalyst menu tree
D. from the CLI, using the system set config command
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are describing the tailback process on an HP StoreOnce 6500 Backup system to the
customer. Which statement is correct?
A. It is initiated across couplets.
B. It is a Service Set entity.
C. It is a manual process.
D. It is an automated process initiated by the cluster heartbeat.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do you perform a tailback of a service set running on node two after you fix hardware
issues on an HP StoreOnce Multi-node system?
A. Execute

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NO.1 Certpaper.com informs you that their Color LaserJet printer has a message on the control
panel that says "Order Magenta Cartridge". Why is the printer indicating this message?
A. This is a message indicating the Magenta cartridge is logging unrecoverable errors, and should be
changed as soon as possible.
B. The magenta cartridge is nearing the end of its useful life, but will continue to print based on
historical page coverage for this printer.
C. The cartridge will run out of magenta in two weeks and should be changed.
D. The internal clock has reached 6 months since the last cartridge change, and a new cartridge
should be ordered.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A jam code can locate a jam, and often identify the cause of the jams. What does the code
read in the paper path?
A. sensors
B. trays
C. flags
D. rollers
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are troubleshooting a non-functional printer and have identified and analyzed all
symptoms associated with the particular problem. What should you do next?
A. Determine and prioritize possible causes.
B. Narrow the symptoms to one critical area.
C. Identify a possible solution.
D. Develop an action plan for problem resolution.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Certpaper.com has purchased a LaserJet 2420 printer. The hardware installation has been
completed. Despite the presence of an HP black toner cartridge, when the printer is powered on it
gives the message "Install Black Toner". What is the issue?
A. DC controller needs to be replaced
B. printer has not been configured properly
C. toner is faulty and needs replacement
D. the grounding lever has become unhinged from the chassis
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Engine Test button is a part of which electronic component?
A. Formatter PCA
B. LVPS
C. HVPS
D. DC Controller
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer needs assistance performing printer roller maintenance. What should you do?
A. Consult the User Guide for the specific procedure for each type of device and guide the customer
through the procedure
B. Schedule a service technician to help the customer if the customer is unsure of how properly
perform the procedure
C. Ask the customer to complete the steps in the Show Me demonstration of the Paper Jam
Fundamental course.
D. Consult the Quick Reference Topic Library available at the end of the Roller Maintenance
Fundamentals course.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are comparing vector graphics to raster graphics. What are characteristics of vector
graphics? (Select three.)
A. Are difficult to resize
B. Result in relatively large files
C. Are used in CAD software
D. Treat lines, arcs, and circles as individual objects
E. Can be scaled without sacrificing quality
F. Have resolutions that are fixed regardless of the capacity of the output device
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 What is the first step in the color printing process?
A. The laser discharges certain areas on the OP
B. The OPC surface is charged.
C. The tone is developed into the OP
D. The formatter splits the print data into four color planes.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-K32
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Exam Code: HP2-N42
Exam Name: Selling HP TippingPoint Operational Security Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-B101
Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals - Exam
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NO.1 The HP approach to security and policy enforcement includes the following goals: define once,
enforce everywhere, and provide which kind of responses in real time?
A. Local
B. Manual
C. Immediate
D. Automated
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are Enterprise security priorities? (Select two.)
A. Hardware hardening
B. Compliance achievement
C. MTTR for security incidents
D. Firewall configuration
E. Switch management
Answer: B,C

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Reference:http://www.sap.com/germany/about/events/SAP-Forum-Public-Services2012 /pdfs/WS1_
Lemke.pdf(slide 4)

NO.3 The HP TippingPoint Network Defense System is a complete set of security solutions that does
what? (Select two.)
A. Protects business critical applications from cyber attacks
B. Measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
C. Captures logs, correlates events, monitors applications, checks for fraud, and manager uses and
controls
D. Addresses advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business
E. Delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security
F. Includes dynamic analytics andscalable infrastructure, as well as predictive intelligence
Answer: D,F

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Reference:http://www.realsec.com/risk2012 /predavanja/RiSK%202012,%20HP%20ES,%20Advancin
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NO.4 Which disruptive technology trend is relevant to ArcSight?
A. The increase in the traditional corporate perimeter
B. Complexity resulting from removing blind spots
C. The decline of security compliance
D. The increased drive to adopt new technologies
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a benefit of a holistic approach to security?
A. Decreasing the number of new security breaches
B. Proactive risk reduction: seeing everything, providing context, and acting appropriately
C. Increasing the protection of your cloud environment
D. Firefighting to solve a problem when a breach occurs
Answer: B

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NO.6 How does HP Fortify Software Security Center identify and eliminate risk? (Select two.)
A. By collecting information from any device to ensure you have complete enterprise security
visibility
B. By addressing advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business
C. By providing dynamic analytics and policy deployment, as well as predictive intelligence
D. By removing security vulnerabilities from the software
E. By preventing the introduction of risk during application development, in house or from vendors
F. By measuring security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
Answer: D,E

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Reference:http://www.slideshare.net/lilianschaffer1 /day-3-p2-security-12068415(slide 18)

NO.7 Which statements are true about HP ArcSight solution architecture as a platform for
monitoring modernthreats and risks? (Select two)
A. It is augmented by services expertise and the most advanced security user community.
Protect724.
B. It captures logs, correlates events, monitors applications, checks for fraud and manager uses and
controls.
C. It includes dynamic analytics and policy deployment, as well as predictive intelligence.
D. It addresses advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business.
E. It measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
F. It accelerates time-to-value for achieving secure applications.
G. It delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security.
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: HP2-K35
Exam Name: Support and Service HP StoreOnce Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-B97
Exam Name: Selling HP Printing Hardware and Supplies
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NO.1 Which technology combines the functionality of a variety of devices in one space-saving
device?
A. Copier technology
B. New LaserJet product naming
C. All-in-One print cartridges
D. HP Multi Function Printers
Answer: D

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Reference: http://www.hp.com/united-states/campaigns/laserjet-mfp-flow/

NO.2 What did Barilla gain by using HP original supplies?
A. total output growth of 31%
B. reduction of 31% in total cost of ownership
C. increased network speeds for monitoring supplies
D. 97% more high quality pages on their color laser printers
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which technology leads to faster first-page-out times on HP LaserJet devices?
A. HP Instant-on Fuser
B. HP Edgeline technology
C. HP Web Jetadmin
D. HP ColorSphere toner
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://www.lasertekservices.com/blog/ 2011 / 04 /instant-on-fuser-%E2%80%93no-more-warm-up-tim
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NO.4 What is ColorLok?
A. a technology and an open paper standard
B. an HP owned technology that delivers outstanding photo quality
C. a chemical process that protects colors and happens in the fuser
D. an office printer standard
Answer: B

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Reference: http://www.hp.com/sbso/product/supplies/paper_colorlok.html

NO.5 Why are discounts usually given on hardware?
A. The most current workgroup printers need a low price.
B. The most current MFPs need discounts the most.
C. Discounts generate a desire for the hardware.
D. The most current retail inkjet devices start with a low price anyway.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the target market for the individual ink Officejet Pro cartridges?
A. customers with very high workgroup print needs that require Web Jetadmin manageability
B. customers who need maximum flexibility for color cartridge yields
C. customers with high individual print usage who need low operating costs
D. customers who need professional and manageable colors for proof printing
Answer: B

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NO.7 Why has there been an increase in the use of color printing in business? (Select two.)
A. Color printing is cheaper than monochrome printing.
B. There have been reductions in the cost of color printing.
C. Businesses are less concerned about their printing costs.
D. Fewer monochrome printers are available.
E. There are proven benefits to using color in documents.
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 An HP print head can fire over how many drops per second?
A. 3 hundred
B. 30 thousand
C. 30 million
D. 30 trillion
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-H32
Exam Name: Selling HP Client Virtualization Solutions Exam
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Exam Code: HP2-H27
Exam Name: Servicing HP Desktops, Workstations and Notebooks
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Exam Code: HP2-K36
Exam Name: Support and Service HP StoreVirtual Solutions
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NO.1 You notice an error icon on a storage system in the navigation tree in the CMC. From the
server the CMC is running on, you can successfully ping the IP address of the storage system. What
is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The management process is not responding.
B. The license for the storage node has expired.
C. The storage node has locked up.
D. The storage node was not assigned a name during installation.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A media and broadcasting customer has an HP StoreVirtual 4000 Storage environment with
eight 4530 SAS nodes. Approximately 50% of the I/O is large sequential; therefore, the configuration
is set for maximum performance. After replacing a defective network switch, the customer
experiences performance and connectivity issues and asks you to solve the problem.
What should you investigate first?
A. If jumbo frames are enabled on the whole path
B. If Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is enabled
C. If Active/Passive (A/P) bonding is enabled
D. If the switch has the actual firmware installed
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have just completed the initial configuration of an HP StoreVirtual 4000 Storage cluster
What can you use to check for potential configuration issues such as improper NIC teaming, data
protection with Network RAID, and optimum load balancing across nodes in the cluster?
A. Insight Remote Support
B. SAN Health Page
C. SAN IQ Health check
D. Best Practice Analyzer
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-2922ENW.pdf(page 6)

NO.4 Which statement about Remote Copy is true?
A. The CMC software always deletes the last fully synchronized remote snapshot after creation.
B. It is a synchronous replication of data to a machine in a geographically-separate location.
C. If the network link goes offline during the process, copying resumes where it left off when the link
is restored.
D. A remote volume can be rolled back until you convert the remote volume into a primary volume.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/doc
Display/resource.process/?javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.en
dCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.rid_ba847bafb2a2d782fcbb0710b053ce01=do
cDisplayResURL&javax.portlet.rst_ba847bafb2a2d782fcbb0710b053ce01=wsrpresourceState%3Ddo
cId%253Demr_na-c035622171%257CdocLocale%253Den_US&javax.portlet.tpst=ba847bafb2a2d78
2fcbb0710b053ce01_ws_B I&ac.admitted=1383023508885.876444892.492883150(page 7 and 8)

NO.5 Which statements are correct about how Recovery Manager is used to recover data from
snapshots? (Select two.)
A. It is a cluster-aware application that will automatically failover to other servers.
B. It does not allow Linux / Unix formatted snapshots to be mounted.
C. It supports SmartClone and Remote Copy Snapshots.
D. It supports a total of five snapshots per volume to be mounted.
E. It allows iSCSI and Fibre Channel attached volumes to be restored.
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/doc
Display/resource.process/?javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.en
dCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.rid_ba847bafb2a2d782fcbb0710b053ce01=do
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cId%253Demr_na-c033862191%257CdocLocale%253Den_US&javax.portlet.tpst=ba847bafb2a2d78
2fcbb0710b053ce01_ws_B I&ac.admitted=1383021943001.876444892.492883150(page 10)

NO.6 In the event of a site failure in a multi-site configuration that is configured according to HP
best practices, how does the HP StoreVirtual 4000 Storage system handle the failover and tailback
process?
A. Failover is automatic, but fallback is manual.
B. Failover is automatic, but failback requires additional scripting.
C. Failover and failback are both manual processes.
D. Failover and failback are completely automatic.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A large healthcare customer wants to implement an HP StoreVirtual 4000 Storage solution.
The customer has two fire zones within the main data center and needs 24x7 availability with
maximum data redundancy. The customer plans to implement an HP StoreVirtual 4000 Storage
solution that is distributed across the fire zones.
Which Network RAID configuration should you recommend to meet these requirements?
A. Network RAID 50+1
B. Network RAID 60+2
C. Network RAID 10+2
D. Network RAID 10+1
Answer: D

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Reference:http://kvaes.wordpress.com/ 2012 / 01 / 04 /p4500-lefthand-p4x00-network-raid-explained/

NO.8 Which functionality was introduced with HP LeftHand OS 10.x?
A. Windows Server 2008
B. Active Directory
C. FCoE
D. Quad CPU support for VSA
Answer: B

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Reference:https://h20392.www2.hp.com/portal/swdepot/displayProductInfo.do?productNumber=S
t oreVirtualSW_10.5