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Exam Code: M2040-724
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Exam Code: C2010-570
Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Implementation
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NO.1 "My ideas and suggestions count" is an example of which top driver of Engagement?
A. Communication
B. Trust
C. Support and Inclusion
D. Growth and Development
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the implementation cycle for Kenexa's Mid-Market Survey Offering?
A. 1 to 2 days
B. 2 to 4 days
C. 3 to 5 days
D. 5 to 10 days
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the attributes that remain constant to delivering a successful employee engagement
survey?
A. Survey Design, Administration and Reporting
B. Administration, Reporting and Behavior Change
C. Survey Design, Administration, Reporting, and Behavior Change
D. Survey Design, Administration, Reporting and Results
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which one of the following is a recognized opportunity accelerator for a Kenexa Survey
Solution?
A. How can we help customers interpret engagement survey results
B. How do we define a survey strategy for existing engagement survey customers
C. How do we show customers how to administer a good engagement survey strategy
D. How can we help customers increase engagement to drive organizational performance
Answer: D

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NO.5 According to the audio recording, when building and executing an assessment strategy, what
are the desired outcomes from the first 2 years of that strategy?
A. Improving process efficiencies
B. Improving Revenue
C. Improving Customer Satisfaction
D. Improving Company Performance
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which one of the following includes the hierarchy of job types and their associated grade or
band?
A. Total Cash Compensation
B. Composite
C. Pay Philosophy
D. Salary Structure
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.kenexa.com/Portals/ 0/Downloads/Best%20Practices%20for%20Desi
gning%20Salary%20Structures.pdf

NO.7 What are the components that make up the Employee Engagement Index?
A. Pride, Satisfaction, and Retention
B. Satisfaction, Advocacy, and Retention
C. Pride Advocacy, and Retention
D. Pride, Satisfaction, Advocacy, and Retention
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.kenexa.com/getattachment/1d2ded1d-4e1c-4820-a3c214b5185876ae/Engag
ement-Trends-Over-Time.aspx

NO.8 What does "The Market" refer to in the Compensation Space?
A. Pay levels determined by industry
B. Pay levels determined by seniority
C. Pay levels at organizations that a company competes with for talent
D. Pay levels determined by internal job Classifications
Answer: C

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Exam Code: P6040-014
Exam Name: IBM SurePOS 500 Models 5x5 Technical Mastery
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Exam Code: A2010-654
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NO.1 How long is the warranty period forthe IBM SurePOS 5x5?
A. six months
B. twelve months
C. thirty-six months
D. twenty-four months
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does improved serviceability refer to in relation to theIBM SurePOS 5x5 models?
A. having the virtually tool-less design of several components
B. having on-site service, 24 hours a day, five days a week, next day response time
C. having on-site service, 24 hours a day, seven days a week, same day responsetime
D. having rigorously tested each component used in the systems to ensure a longer life span
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are four optional features for the IBM SurePOS 5x5? (Choose four.)
A. presence sensor
B. three-track MSR
C. video adapter card
D. internal CD-ROM drive
E. 512MB of system memory
F. 4GB embedded modular flash drive
G. compact ANPOS keyboard
Answer: B,C,F,G

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NO.4 What are two advantages of the infrared technology used in the IBM SurePOS 5x5? (Choose
two.)
A. It is the most economical tomass produce.
B. Field calibration is only required once a year.
C. Infrared touch screens have an unlimited number of touches.
D. It provides the best overall image quality of any touch technology.
E. A special coating makes infrared touch screens easierto clean than other technologies.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about "dual-channel memory enabled"technology? (Choose
two)
A. It makes use of virtual RAM.
B. It doubles the capacity of feeding data to the processor.
C. It has two sets of memory slots (two each) on the system board.
D. It is the equivalent of having two pipelines to the processor rather than one.
E. It partitions a portion of the hard disk drive to be used as an additional memory cache.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What is the best way to clean an IBM SurePOS 5x5 touch screen?
A. use a chlorine-based window cleaner and soft cloth
B. use a common ammonia-based window cleaner and a soft cloth
C. use isopropyl alcohol or a mild liquid glass cleaner and a soft cloth
D. use a damp sponge moistened with hot water and a small amount of non-abrasive cleaner
Answer: C

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NO.7 Where is the RJ45 MSR connector located on the IBM SurePOS 5x5?
A. on therear connector panel
B. on the back side of the display panel
C. integrated into the system unit (tower) behind the display panel
D. integrated into the right side of the system unit (tower) as it is facing the operator
Answer: B

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NO.8 The IBM Diagnostics for POS Systems and Peripherals runs from which media?
A. the Enterprise server
B. a USB connected CDROM drive
C. a USB memory key, 256MB or larger
D. a subdirectory on the system hard disk drive
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2180-716
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Exam Code: C2010-040
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Change Configuration Release Management Implementation
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Exam Code: A2150-006
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Implementation
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NO.1 Which IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 offering is appropriate for a customer needing only
a Service Desk and simple change management?
A. Everyplace
B. Entry Edition
C. Service Provider
D. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
Answer: B

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NO.2 An IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 (SCCD) system will be deployed with a new IBM Tivoli
Directory Server (TDS) and WebSphere Application Server. Which two options must be selected
during SCCD and its middleware installation in order to maintain the security group in TDS? (Choose
two.)
A. Use IBM Maximo internal authentication
B. Defer the update of the IBM Maximo database
C. Secure the J2EE server using the Directory Server
D. Use application server and LDAP for authentication only
E. Use application server and LDAP for authentication and user/group management
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Where can a user find the application to manage authorized assets?
A. Assets module, Assets application
B. Assets module, Authorized Assets application
C. IT Infrastructure module, Reconciliation application
D. IT Infrastructure module, Authorized Assets application
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the difference between an Actual Configuration Item and a Configuration Item (CI)?
A. There maybe an active Change created against the CI.
B. There must be an active Change created against the CI.
C. There may be an active Change created against the Actual CI.
D. There must be an active Change created against the Actual CI.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk E-Mail Listener?
A. It can process encrypted messages.
B. It can process digitally signed messages.
C. It supports POP3 and IMAP protocols only.
D. It does not support embedded attachments.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When installing an enterprise solution, which edition of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk can be
installed?
A. Only Entry Edition
B. Any product edition
C. Only Everyplace Edition
D. Only Service Provider Edition
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the primary use of the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 (SCCD) Launchpad?
A. Installing SCCD
B. Transferring core data
C. Using the SCCD Navigator
D. Obtaining SCCD product information
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are two virtual machine images that must be deployed to implement the IBM
SmartCloud Control Desk VM Image solution? (Choose two.)
A. IBM DB2 virtual machine
B. IBM Tivoli Directory Server virtual machine
C. Administrative Workstation virtual machine
D. IBM Tivoli Integration Composer virtual machine
E. IBM WebSphere Application Server virtual machine
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: C2040-412
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Exam Code: A2010-502
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices V2.1 Implementation
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Exam Code: A2010-939
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Change and Configuration Manager Database V7.1.1
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NO.1 What must occur in order to remove an iOS profile from a managed device?
A. The profile must not be encrypted.
B. The profile must contain an administrator password.
C. The profile must have been encrypted at the time of deployment.
D. The profile must have been deployed using IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which mobile devices can only be managed using the Management Extender for Microsoft
Exchange?
A. AppleiOS4.xdevices
B. BlackBerry OS 10 devices
C. SAEE enabled Android devices
D. Microsoft Windows Mobile 5.x devices
Answer: B

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NO.3 When creating a Samsung SAFE Capability Profile what are two of the system security'
restrictions that can be set for SAFE compatible mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. disable Bluetooth
B. disable the microphone
C. enable encryption of internal storage
D. enable encryption of external storage
E. define the required maximum password length
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Where would a device obtain an APK file during application installation once it has been
imported to the IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices? (Choose two.)
A. relay
B. App Store
C. Google Play
D. corporate intranet site
E. IBM Endpoint Manager server
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 An employee's corporate mobile device managed by IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) was stolen.
The device is accessing corporate data both using e-mail and VPN profiles. Which action can be
initiated by the EM console operator to protect access to corporate data?
A. run the action of task Device Wipe against the stolen device
B. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Corporate Device against the stolen device
C. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Android Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
D. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Apple iOS Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
Answer: A

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NO.6 An IBM Endpoint Manager administrator who is responsible for managing iOS mobile devices
needs to view a list of applications installed on a particular OS device. Where can this be done?
A. Mobile Device dashboard
B. iOS Device View dashboard
C. Single Device View dashboard
D. Enterprise Apps Management dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.7 Apple devices are not receiving commands sent from the iOS Management Extender. Which
log file should be checked to ensure the iOS extender is communicating with the Apple Push
Notification Service?
A. jetty.log
B. apns.log
C. iosmdm.log
D. mdm_tasks.log
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the recommended maximum number of iOS devices that should report to an iOS
management extender?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 5000
D. 10000
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 Common Technical Sales Skills -v2
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Exam Code: C2040-413
Exam Name: IBM Sametime 9.0 Administration
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NO.1 A customer wants to implement 8 LPARs, 4 of IBM i and 4 of AIX. The customer wants the new
systems to be modular, configured to support their needs, and have room to expand if needed.
Which system is the minimum needed to support the customer requirements?
A. PureElex p220
B. PureElex p260
C. PureFlex p24L
D. PureFlex p460
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is interested in virtualizing their environment. PowerVM and VMware are the
products whose hypervisors are best suited for their existing infrastructure.
Which advantage of PowerVM over VMware will most benefit their environment?
A. Industry leading hypervisor
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Consolidation of multiple workloads
D. Hypervisor components embedded in hardware
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer plans to deploy a 24x7 application, and is evaluating prospective solutions based
on which would offer the highest level of application availability.
Which of the following solutions should be presented to the customer for consideration?
A. Power 780 with Active Memory Sharing
B. Power 770 with Active Memory Mirroring
C. Power 760 with Active Memory Mirroring
D. Power 740 with Active Memory Management
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer wants to implement Linux on Power with dual VIO Servers on internal disk
controllers. Which of the following systems should be suggested?
A. Power 720
B. Power 730
C. PowerLinux 7R1
D. PowerLinux 7R2
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is one of the advantages of the 6-core Power 720 when compared to the 4-core Power
720?
A. Offers a P05 tier
B. Offers one 12X loop
C. Offers Dual VIO Servers
D. Offers more SAS Disk Bays in CEO
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer would like to consolidate their AIX and IBM i workloads that are currently running
on several POWER6 servers. They also want to consolidate storage and use Live Partition Mobility to
reduce planned downtime for server maintenance.
In addition to a Storwize V70001 PowerVM Enterprise Edition and dual VIO Servers, which of the
following configurations supports these requirements?
A. One POWER7+ server IBM i and AIX client LPARs
B. Two POWER7+ servers IBM i and AIX client LPARs
C. One POWER7+ server AIX client LPARs IBM i LPAR5 with internal storage
D. Two POWER7+ servers AIX client LPAR5 IBM i LPARs with internal storage
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer is considering running Linux in a virtualized environment and is evaluating the
differences between PowerVM and VMware.
Which of the following would be an advantage of PowerVM?
A. Number of virtual processors
B. Ability to move virtual machines
C. Ability to dynamically add CPU's
D. Ability to dynamically add memory
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following will cause Live Partition Mobility validation to fail?
A. Less than one full processor
B. AME configured for the partition
C. Network connection through HEA
D. NPIV connection to SAN storage through VIOS
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2180-318
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5, Core Administration
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NO.1 A company needs to use the same application server configuration to test the application in
development, test and pre-production environment. It would like to back up theserver configuration
from the development environment and restore it in other environments. How can the system
administrator meet this requirement?
A. Copy all the files under the profile's server directory.
B. Copy only the XML files under the profile'sserver directory.
C. Use the backupConfig and restoreConfig commands.
D. Use the wsadmin AdminTask exportServer and wsadmin AdminTask importServer commands.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A system administrator was asked by the development team to inform them of any warning
message which contains a string "Connection" on a WebSphere Application Server with High
Performance Extensible Logging (HPEL) enabled. What shouldsystem administrator do to
continuously monitor logs for the required message?
A. Configure log detail levels to include filter on "Connection" string.
B. Use the Log Viewer in the administrative console with filter on "Connection" string.
C. Use the logviewer.sh or logviewer.bat command with appropriate options.
D. Use the Log Viewer in the administrative console with filter on "Connection" string and enable
the 'Refresh automatically' feature.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A system administrator has configured a clustered environment where session persistence
is configured. While tuning the environment, the administrator enables verbose garbage collection.
Now the administrator is seeing a high CPU usage for the servers in the cluster and begins seeing
out-of-memory exceptions in the log files. How can the system administrator diagnose what is
accumulating in the memory and causing the out-of-memory exceptions?
A. Enable High Performance Extensible Logging (HPEL).
B. Examine the verbose garbage collection statistics in the SystemOut.log files.
C. Use the Garbage Collection and Memory Visualizer tool in the IBM Support Assistant.
D. Disable verbose garbagecollection and compare the before and after verbose garbage collection
statistics.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A system administrator is using wsadmin scripts to perform product configuration.
The command connects to a target server by specifying the connection type (SOAP), target server,
port number and script file. The scripts have been successfully tested in a standalone environment.
But, after the node is federated, the updates made are only visible for a limited amount of time.
What should the system administrator do to fix this problem?
A. wsadmin should target node agent.
B. Verify that deployment manager is set as the target server.
C. After running wsadmin, a syncNode command should be run.
D. Ensure that the deployment manager and node agents are synchronized before running the script.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A system administrator has created a dynamic cluster in a production environment. During the
autonomic server start and stop operations, it was observed that the server is taking more time
than normal and the administrator is always called for manual start/stop of the servers. What
should the system administrator tune to avoid manual intervention?
A. Health controller.
B. Dynamic workload controller.
C. Application placement controller.
D. On-demand configuration manager.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A system administrator needs to install an IBM fixpack to a WebSphere Application Server V8.5
node to resolve a security issue. The fixpack needs to be installed to both local and remote
installations. How can the system administrator accomplish the task from a single workstation?
A. Create a response file and use the IBM Installation Manager and the job manager to install the
fixpack.
B. Create a response fileand use the IBM Update Installer for WebSphere and the job manager to
install the fixpack.
C. Use shell scripting to transfer and directly execute the IBM fixpack on each workstation.
D. Use the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions Console to generate theresponse file, transfer the
fixpack to the remote workstations and execute the update.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A new system administrator is workingon a script to retrieve specific configuration information
from every server in a WebSphere Application Server cell for a new report being created. One of the
first things the script will need to do is determine which servers are in the cell. After spending
several hours writing complex scripting to determine which servers are in the cell, a colleague
shares with the new administrator a one line command that returns a list of all the servers
contained in the cell. Which wsadmin object was introduced to thenew system administrator by the
colleague?
A. AdminApp
B. AdminTask
C. AdminConfig
D. AdminControl
Answer: B

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NO.8 A system administrator is concerned about the stability of a new application deployment. The
administrator wishes to utilize Intelligent Management to ensure at least two application servers are
running at all times. How should the system administrator dothis?
A. Create a static cluster of two WebSphere Application Servers instances.
B. Create a dynamic cluster with a minimum number of three cluster instances.
C. Create a health management policy to restart the application server in the event of
excessivememory usage.
D. Configure an On-demand Router (ODR) to route requests to a static cluster of two WebSphere
Application Server instances.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: VCE Vblock Systems Deployment and Implementation - Core Exam
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NO.1 For bare metal deployments, which statement ensures VCE is able to provide reasonable-effort
support?
A. The ratio of bare metal to virtualized hosts cannot be more than 40 percent.
B. A minimum of five virtualized hosts must be enabled.
C. Bare metal workloads are run on separate physical spindles, disk groups, and pools.
D. Systems cannot include hypervisor technologies other than VMware.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which protocol is used to provide unified file storage connectivity to a Vblock System 320?
A. FCoE
B. IP
C. iSCSI
D. FC
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which component connects a Vblock System 720 to a customer's network aggregation layer?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
B. Cisco Catalyst 3750-X
C. Cisco MDS 9148
D. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect 6296UP
Answer: A

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NO.4 During a Vblock System 320 deployment, the customer wants to disassociate four half-width
blades in a single chassis for a future project.
Which tool is used to perform this compute reconfiguration?
A. vSphere
B. CIMC
C. Unisphere
D. UCSM
Answer: D

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NO.5 After the installing the Cisco Nexus 1000V, the administrator uses the command show svs
connections.
This command shows the connection status of which component?
A. ESXi host
B. vCenter server
C. Secondary Virtual Supervisor Module
D. VMware Update Manager (VUM)
Answer: B

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NO.6 During a Vblock System logical build, which two management components within Unified
Computing System Manager (UCSM) require configuration with an IP address? (Choose two.)
A. fabric extender
B. fabric interconnect
C. UCSM
D. Cisco Nexus 5108 chassis
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 On a Vblock System 320, each VMware ESXi host will boot from a SAN-attached boot drive
presented from the EMC VNX array.
Which statement is true according to VCE standards for boot LUNs?
A. Use Fibre Channel drives to create a RAID group, use RAID-5 4+1 RAID group, then create a 20 GB
LUN.
B. Use Fibre Channel drives to create a RAID group, use RAID-5 7+1 RAID group, then create a 20 GB
LUN.
C. Use SAS drives to create a RAID group, use RAID-5 4+1 RAID group, then create a 20 MB LUN.
D. Use SAS drives to create a RAID group, use RAID-5 4+1 RAID group, then create a 20 GB LUN.
Answer: D

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NO.8 During a Vblock System logical build, which three configuration changes require Unified
Computing System Manager (UCSM) access? (Choose three.)
A. fabric interconnect interfaces
B. ESXi host Network Time Protocol
C. service profiles
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. UCS Smart Call Home
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.1 What is not possible using Declarative Programming language?
A. Create : Create a new Record
B. Update : Auto Update the fields in the Record with Dynamic Values
C. Integration : Send Message to external System
D. Delete ; Delete existing Record
Answer: B

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NO.2 Universal Containers wants all of its sales representatives to use a standard format in Microsoft
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B. Create and upload an email template to Sales force; train sales representatives how to leverage it
via Connect for Outlook.
C. Create and upload a mail merge template to Sales force; training sales representatives how to
leverage it via connect for outlook
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which should be used when coding Apex if the code is going to be reused by other
developers?
A. Classes
B. Triggers
C. Global Groups
D. Managed Packages
Answer: A

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
What sales force labs dashboards are available for free on App Exchange?
Answer:
1.Leads and Opportunity Dashboards
2.Sales Activity Dashboards
3.PRM Channel Sales
4.Services and Support
5.Marketing Target Dashboards
6.Marketing Metrics Dashboards
7.Sales KPI Dashboards

NO.5 What type of information can be recorded in a debug log?(Select a II that apply)
A. Workflow
B. Data Storage
C. Validation
D. Database
E. License
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Universal Containers require an approval process on Campaigns where campaigns required
approving by Area managers. Once the Campaign submitted for approval which of the following is
true?
A. User can update actual cost in campaign after it is submitted for approval.
B. User can add campaign members after submitted for approval.
C. Record is lock for editing and none of above option a and b are possible.
D. None of above.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What can be customized in content?(choose 2)
A. Content type
B. Validation rules
C. Page layouts
D. Content Value
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which of the following are other approaches to using the built in wizards for mass-deleting
records?
Select all that apply:
A. Reports
B. Weekly Export
C. Data Loader
D. Excel Connector
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 Which type of antenna is used in wireless communication?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Parabolic
C. Uni-directional
D. Bi-directional
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which cipher encrypts the plain text digit (bit or byte) one by one?
A. Classical cipher
B. Block cipher
C. Modern cipher
D. Stream cipher
Answer: D

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NO.3 Keystroke logging is the action of tracking (or logging) the keys struck on a keyboard, typically
in a covert manner so that the person using the keyboard is unaware that their actions are being
monitored.
How will you defend against hardware keyloggers when using public computers and Internet Kiosks?
(Select 4 answers)
A. Alternate between typing the login credentials and typing characters somewhere else in the
focus window
B. Type a wrong password first, later type the correct password on the login page defeating the
keylogger recording
C. Type a password beginning with the last letter and then using the mouse to move the cursor for
each subsequent letter.
D. The next key typed replaces selected text portion. E.g. if the password is "secret", one could type
"s", then some dummy keys "asdfsd". Then these dummies could be selected with mouse, and next
character from the password "e" is typed, which replaces the dummies "asdfsd"
E. The next key typed replaces selected text portion. E.g. if the password is "secret", one could type
"s", then some dummy keys "asdfsd". Then these dummies could be selected with mouse, and next
character from the password "e" is typed, which replaces the dummies "asdfsd"
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.4 Jason works in the sales and marketing department for a very large advertising agency
located in Atlanta. Jason is working on a very important marketing campaign for his company's
largest client. Before the project could be completed and implemented, a competing advertising
company comes out with the exact same marketing materials and advertising, thus rendering all the
work done for Jason's client unusable. Jason is questioned about this and says he has no idea how
all the material ended up in the hands of a competitor.
Without any proof, Jason's company cannot do anything except move on. After working on another
high profile client for about a month, all the marketing and sales material again ends up in the
hands of another competitor and is released to the public before Jason's company can finish the
project. Once again, Jason says that he had nothing to do with it and does not know how this could
have happened. Jason is given leave with pay until they can figure out what is going on.
Jason's supervisor decides to go through his email and finds a number of emails that were sent to
the competitors that ended up with the marketing material. The only items in the emails were
attached jpg files, but nothing else. Jason's supervisor opens the picture files, but cannot find
anything out of the ordinary with them.
What technique has Jason most likely used?
A. Stealth Rootkit Technique
B. ADS Streams Technique
C. Snow Hiding Technique
D. Image Steganography Technique
Answer: D

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NO.5 Information gathered from social networking websites such as Facebook, Twitter and
LinkedIn can be used to launch which of the following types of attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Smurf attack
B. Social engineering attack
C. SQL injection attack
D. Phishing attack
E. Fraggle attack
F. Distributed denial of service attack
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 An attacker is attempting to telnet into a corporation's system in the DMZ.
The attacker doesn't want to get caught and is spoofing his IP address.
After numerous tries he remains unsuccessful in connecting to the system.
The attacker rechecks that the target system is actually listening on Port 23 and he verifies it with
both nmap and hping2. He is still unable to connect to the target system. What could be the reason?
A. The firewall is blocking port 23 to that system
B. He needs to use an automated tool to telnet in
C. He cannot spoof his IP and successfully use TCP
D. He is attacking an operating system that does not reply to telnet even when open
Answer: C

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NO.7 Joe Hacker is going wardriving. He is going to use PrismStumbler and wants it to go to a GPS
mapping software application. What is the recommended and well-known GPS mapping package
that would interface with PrismStumbler?
Select the best answer.
A. GPSDrive
B. GPSMap
C. WinPcap
D. Microsoft Mappoint
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Explanations: GPSDrive is a Linux GPS mapping package. It recommended to be used to send
PrismStumbler data to so that it can be mapped. GPSMap is a generic term and not a real software
package. WinPcap is a packet capture library for Windows. It is used to capture packets and deliver
them to other programs for analysis. As it is for Windows, it isn't going to do what Joe Hacker is
wanting to do. Microsoft Mappoint is a Windows application. PrismStumbler is a Linux application.
Thus, these two are not going to work well together.

NO.8 You visit a website to retrieve the listing of a company's staff members. But you can not find it
on the website. You know the listing was certainly present one year before. How can you retrieve
information from the outdated website?
A. Through Google searching cached files
B. Through Archive.org
C. Download the website and crawl it
D. Visit customers' and prtners' websites
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Archive.org mirrors websites and categorizes them by date and month depending on the crawl time.
Archive.org dates back to 1996, Google is incorrect because the cache is only as recent as the latest
crawl, the cache is over-written on each subsequent crawl. Download the website is incorrect
becausethat's the same as what you see online. Visiting customer partners websites is just bogus.
The answer is then Firmly, C, archive.org

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NO.1 Your Hadoop cluster is configured with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Can
you configure a worker node to run aNodeManager daemon but not a DataNode daemon and still
have a function cluster?
A. Yes. The daemon will receive data from the NameNode to run Map tasks
B. Yes. The daemon will get data from another (non-local) DataNode to run Map tasks
C. Yes. The daemon will receive Reduce tasks only
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Yarn daemon or service monitors a Container's per-application resource usage (e.g,
memory, CPU)?
A. NodeManager
B. ApplicationMaster
C. ApplicationManagerService
D. ResourceManager
Answer: A

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Reference:http://docs.hortonworks.com/HDPDocuments/HDP2 /HDP-2.0.0.2 /bk_usingapache-hadoo
p/content/ch_using-apache-hadoop-4.html(4th para)

NO.3 Your cluster's mapped-site.xml includes the following parameters
<name>mapreduce.map.memory.mb</name> <value>4096<value/>
<name>mapreduce.reduce.memory,mb</name> <value>8192</value>
And your cluster's yarn-site.xml includes the following parameters
<name>yarn.nodemanager/vmen-pmem-ratio</name> <value>2.1</value>
What is the maximum amount of virtual memory allocated for each map before YARN will kill its
Container?
A. 4 GB
B. 17.2 GB
C. 24.6 GB
D. 8.2 GB
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your cluster implements HDFS High Availability (HA). Your two NameNodes are named nn01
and nn02. What occurs when you execute the command: hdfs haadmin -failover nn01 nn02
A. nn02 becomes the standby NameNode and nn01 becomes the active NameNode
B. nn02 is fenced, and nn01 becomes the active NameNode
C. nn01 becomes the standby NamNode and nn02 becomes the active NAmeNode
D. nn01 is fenced, and nn02 becomes the active NameNode
Answer: D

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Explanation:
failover - initiate a failover between two NameNodes This subcommand causes a failover from the
first provided NameNode to the second. If the first NameNode is in the Standby state, this
command simply transitions the second to the Active state without error. If the first NameNode is in
the Active state, an attempt will be made to gracefully transition it to the Standby state. If this fails,
the fencing methods (as configured by dfs.ha.fencing.methods) will be attempted in order until one
of the methods succeeds. Only after this process will the second NameNode be transitioned to the
Active state. If no fencing method succeeds, the second NameNode will not be transitioned to the
Active state, and an error will be returned.

NO.5 You are the hadoop fs -put command to add a file "sales.txt" to HDFS. This file is small enough
that it fits into a single block, which is replicated to three nodes in your cluster (with a replication
factor of 3). One of the nodes holding this file (a single block) fails. How will the cluster handle the
replication of this file in this situation/
A. The cluster will re-replicate the file the next time the system administrator reboots the
NameNode daemon (as long as the file's replication doesn't fall two)
B. This file will be immediately re-replicated and all other HDFS operations on the cluster will halt
until the cluster's replication values are restored
C. The file will remain under-replicated until the administrator brings that nodes back online
D. The file will be re-replicated automatically after the NameNode determines it is under replicated
based on the block reports it receives from the DataNodes
Answer: B

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NO.6 You decide to create a cluster which runs HDFS in High Availability mode with automatic
failover, using Quorum-based Storage. What is the purpose of ZooKeeper in such a configuration?
A. It manages the Edits file, which is a log changes to the HDFS filesystem.
B. It monitors an NFS mount point and reports if the mount point disappears
C. It both keeps track of which NameNode is Active at any given time, and manages the Edits file,
which is a log of changes to the HDFS filesystem
D. It only keeps track of which NameNode is Active at any given time
E. Clients connect toZoneKeeper to determine which NameNode is Active
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.cloudera.com/content/cloudera-content/clouderadocs/CDH4 /latest/PDF/CD
H4-High-Availability-Guide.pdf(page 15)

NO.7 You suspect that your NameNode is incorrectly configured, and is swapping memory to disk.
Which Linux commands help you to identify whether swapping is occurring?
A. free
B. df
C. memcat
D. top
E. vmstat
F. swapinfo
Answer: C

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NO.8 A slave node in your cluster has four 2TB hard drives installed (4 x 2TB). The DataNode is
configured to store HDFS blocks on the disks. You set the value of the dfs.datanode.du.reserved
parameter to 100GB. How does this alter HDFS block storage?
A. A maximum of 100 GB on each hard drive may be used to store HDFS blocks
B. All hard drives may be used to store HDFS blocks as long as atleast 100 GB in total is available on
the node
C. 100 GB on each hard drive may not be used to store HDFS blocks
D. 25 GB on each hard drive may not be used to store HDFS blocks
Answer: B

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NO.1 What's the maximum size of an OMF file for exchanging with a Digital Audio Workstation?
A. 16 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 2 GB
D. 1 GB
Answer: C

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NO.2 You create a new sequence preset using the New Sequence dialog box. Where can you select
this preset when creating a new sequence?
A. In the User Presets menu, in the Settings tab.
B. In the Editing Mode menu, in the Settings tab.
C. In the last category selected, in the Sequence Presets tab.
D. In the Custom category in the Sequence Presets tab.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://helpx.adobe.com/premiere-pro/using/creating-changingsequences.html(create a
sequence, see the second bullet)

NO.3 What is the maximum number of Video tracks in an EDL?
A. 2
B. l
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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Reference:http://forums.creativecow.net/thread/ 3 /914281(first post, last para)

NO.4 You want to lower the overall brightness of the brightest whites in your clip. Which control in
the Three-Way Color Corrector should you use?
A. Auto Contrast
B. Output Levels
C. Input Levels
D. Tonal Range Definition
Answer: C

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NO.5 How many angles can have keyboard shortcuts that can be assigned for the Multi-Camera
Monitor?
A. Unlimited
B. 9
C. 4
D. 16
Answer: C

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Reference:http://books.google.com.pk/books?id=a7VvNofJXZUC&pg=PA239&lpg=PA239&
dq=adobe+premiere+pro+angles+can+have+keyboard+shortcuts+that+can+be+assigned+
for+the+Multi-Camera+Monitor&source=bl&ots=M5QXuIW59n&sig=SZHyKlcxa524IxsCTVOGzbLvH9
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obe%20premiere%20pro%20angles%20can%20have%20keyboard%20shortcuts%20that %20can%2
0be%20assigned%20for%20the%20Multi-Camera%20Monitor&f=false(see bullet # 8)

NO.6 You want to change the way Premiere Pro displays pixels for a clip from a non-square aspect
ratio to square. In which two places can you change this setting? (Choose two.)
A. Choose Clip > Modify > Interpret Footage.
B. Right-click on the clip and choose Analyze Content.
C. Right-click on the clip and choose Edit Original.
D. Right-click on the clip and choose Modify > Interpret Footage.
E. Choose Edit > Edit Original.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A stereo track called Music (which is in a sequence with a 5.1 Master track) is only playing from the
front left, front right and surround left and surround right speakers and not the center andLFE
channels on the master track. Why are the center and LFE channels NOT heard on the speakers?
A. Stereo tracks cannot be panned or routed to the center or LFE channels
B. The center percentage and LFE volume controls are both set to infinity
C. You must create a 5.1 submix to route stereo tracks to the center and LFE channels.
D. The stereo track is panned center in the surround sound field
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are creating a new version of your project using the Project Manager. You are not sure if
there will be enough space on your target drive for the associated media files. How can you find out
the total amount of space required?
A. Check the size of the original media.
B. Browse to the new project destination.
C. Choose Create New Trimming Project.
D. Click the Calculate button.
Answer: A

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