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Exam Code: C2090-305
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Information Analyzer v9.1
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Exam Code: C2040-929
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration Update
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NO.1 Which one of the following is true when using OpenID as an external identity provider?
A. Administrators are not allowed to change the list of external identity providers that users
canaccess.
B. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators can edit the
openid.servicenames property in the Resource
Environment Providers section in the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console.
C. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators can edit the
openid.servicenames in the custom properties for thecom.ibm.portal.auth.OpenIDTAI trust
association interceptor.
D. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators need to edit the
openid.servicenames property in the wkplc.propertiesfile and then run the
enable-identityprovidertai
task.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Identify the false statement pertaining to log files generated during installation, maintenance,
and
operation of IBM WebSphere Portal:
A. ConfigTrace.log - Contains information that is generated each time a ConfigEngine task is
executed.This file is located inwp_profile_root/ConfigEngine/log directory.
B. trace.log - Used for Diagnostic Trace to log information related to the Collaborative Services.
This file is located inwp_profile_root/logs/WebSphere_Portal directory.
C. siteanalyzer.log - contains the the portal configuration service SiteAnalyzerLogService
information that determines the type of site analysis datathat the portal logs at run time. This file is
located in wp_profile_root/logs/WebSphere_Portal/sa directory.
D. SystemOut.log - Contains runtime information.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In order to view site analytics overlay reports, Harold needs at least the following access:
A. ADMINISTRATOR role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and ADMINISTRATOR role
for the resource he wants to view.
B. MANAGER role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and MANAGER role for the resource
he wants to view
C. SECURITY ADMINISTRATOR role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and SECURITY
ADMINISTRATOR role for the resource he wants toview.
D. USER role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and USER role for the resource he wants
to view.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2060-350
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Transformation Extender V8.4 Application Development
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Exam Code: C2010-939
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Change and Configuration Management Database V7.1.1 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2140-820
Exam Name: Rational Team Concert V4
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NO.1 What is the core of the Tivoli process automation engine?
A.a J2EE application running in the WebSphere environment
B.a special standalone application based on Tivoli framework services
C.a Visual Basic application modified by the Maximo development team
D.a Visual Basic application on top of the Tivoli Scripting language and WebSphere
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is used to configure and run process definitions in CCMDB?
A.Work definition
B.Process definition
C.Process configuration
D.Work Order management
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which component of the CCMDB data layer performs the data discovery and loads
data into a CMDB
based on the Common Data Model.
A.TADDM
B.the Maximo Database
C.the Change Management Module
D.the Configuration Management Module
Answer: A

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NO.4 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.map roles to the defined tasks
B.define the level of effort for each task
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two actions are performed from the CCMDB administrative workstation?
(Choose two.)
A.import TADDM data
B.install patches and upgrades
C.control user IDs and Security groups
D.install WebSphere Application Servers
E.build CCMDB EAR (Enterprise Archive) files
Answer: BE

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NO.6 Which statement is true about TADDM and CCMDB?
A.CCMDB is a required component of TADDM.
B.TADDM is a required component of CCMDB.
C.TADDM and CCMDB must be installed on the same system.
D.CCMDB serves as a discovery tool, while TADDM serves as a data repository.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What does the Tivoli process automation engine provide to the CCMDB?
A.Workflows
B.Impact Analysis
C.Audit Processes
D.Change Requests
Answer: A

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NO.8 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.define the level of effort for each task
B.define the roles involved in the process
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2070-055
Exam Name: IBM FileNet P8 System Implementation Technical Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: M2020-620
Exam Name: IBM Risk Analytics Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 In IBM Risk Analytics, IBM studies show that setting aside additional capital made no impact
on businesses in a crisis.
What is it that has been proved to improve business survival in the same crisis scenario?
A. Additional data to work with
B. External consulting support
C. Increased market confident through evidentially better business management
D. A more dynamic acquisition strategy
Answer: C

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NO.2 According to independent studies, what measure has IBM used to validate to the market the
value of adopting Smarter Analytics solutions?
A. That companies increase their volumes of data.
B. That companies create bigger networks.
C. That companies out perform their competitors.
D. That companies are able to tie their performance to the average in their industry.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which one of the following is a business process that the IBM Risk Analytics portfolio is
focused on improving?
A. Deploying predictive maintenance capabilities
B. Reducing customer churn
C. Reducing the cost of compliance
D. Improving propensity analysis
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/category/SWQ40(4th bullet)

NO.4 What are two of the key weighted assessment criteria used to assess the industry solution in
the Chartis 2011 RiskTech100@ study of the top technology companies active in the risk
management market?
A. Market presence and organizational strength
B. Data handling and processing speed
C. Organizational strength and data handling
D. Processing speed and market presence
Answer: A

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Reference:http://chartis-research.com/files/RiskTech100-2011-FullReport_RR1120.pdf(page 6, see
success factors)

NO.5 Which Risk Analytics solution focuses on helping companies deliver Governance, Risk and
Compliance (GRC)?
A. Algo Liquidity
B. OpenPages
C. Algo Financial Modeler
D. Algo One
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/analytics/rte/an/risk-compliance/index.html(read the
entire page)

NO.6 According to the IBM Financial Markets Framework, name a key area of financial enterprise
that IBM can now provide a solution for, with its acquisition of the Algorithmics solution set?
A. Algorithmic Trading
B. Operational Risk and Compliance
C. Next Generation Trading Infrastructure
D. CVA and Hedging Optimization
Answer: A

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Reference:http://public.dhe.ibm.com/common/ssi/ecm/en/fab03002usen/FAB03002USEN.PDF(pa
ge 4)

NO.7 According to the 2012 Gartner Magic Quadrant report for enterprise Governance, Risk and
Compliance (GRC) platforms, what is one of the key strengths identified for OpenPages?
A. Core system ability
B. Offering Strategy
C. Vertical / Industry Strategy
D. Geographic strategy
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.citia.co.uk/content/files/magic-quadrant-for-enterprise-governance-risk-and
compliance-platforms-2012_70384698.pdf(see page 5, strengths, last para)

NO.8 To help companies understand their progress on a Smarter Analytics maturity model, IBM
helps companies access their Analytics Quotient (AQ).
What is one aspect of a client's business that is scored to measure a company's AQ maturity?
A. The level of Risk they Measure in their business
B. The volume of data they process
C. The number of nodes used to process data
D. The ability to anticipate future events and results
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2010-501
Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Infrastructure Implementation
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Exam Code: P2090-075
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Guardium Technical Mastery Test
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Exam Code: C2010-508
Exam Name: IBM Endpoint Manager V9.0 Fundamentals
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NO.1 Which content domain contains prototype and experimental content to be used at the
user's own risk?
A. BigFixLabs
B. Systems Lifecycle
C. Endpoint Protection
D. Security Configuration
Answer: A

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NO.2 Patch Management for AIX has various methods for obtaining updated files.
Which native AIX method can IBM Endpoint Manager integrate with?
A. AIX Download plug-in
B. AIX Download Cacher
C. Yellowdog Update Manager (YUM)
D. Network Installation Management (NIM)
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www01.ibm.com/common/ssi/ShowDoc.wss?docURL=/common/ssi/rep_ca/ 4 / 897 /
ENUS214014 /index.html&lang=en&request_locale=en(ibm endpoint manager for patch
management improvements)

NO.3 Which console location allows a search for all Fixlets and tasks containing the name Upgrade?
A. List Panel
B. Domain Panel
C. Console Toolbar
D. Work Area Toolbar
Answer: B

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Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v26r1 /topic/com.ibm.tem.doc_8.2 /Tivoli
_Endpoint_Manager_Console_Operators_Guide.pdf(page 8)

NO.4 A user has recently deployed an action to a group of endpoints that she currently manages.
Several of these machines are reporting Postponed in their Last Reported Status of the action. What
does this mean?
A. The endpoint was restarted during action execution.
B. The action was sent while the client was gathering content.
C. The action was deferred by the end user of the target machine.
D. The clients received a command with higher priority which delayed the user's action.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When adding a Fixlet ortask to a baseline, which option is used automatically as the action?
A. Action 1
B. Quick Action
C. Default Action
D. No action is used automatically.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Both Fixlets and Tasks might have a Default Action, allowing you to simply click from the list to
deploy it. They can both be grouped into Baselines, allowing higher levels of automation. If you
create a Baseline of Fixlets or Tasks which all contain default Actions,
you can turn the tedious chores of maintaining a corporate policy or common operating
environmentinto a single-click operation.
Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v26r1 /index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ibm.te
m.doc_8.2%2FPlatform%2FConsole%2Fc_introducing_fixlets_and_tasks.html

NO.6 How is a default action turned into a policy within the Execution tab of the Take Action dialog?
A. remove all constraints
B. configure and enable all constraints
C. check the On failure, retry check box
D. the action name must be prefixed with Policy:
Answer: C

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NO.7 An operator has a number of systems that report to the same relay that are no longer
reporting to the IBM Endpoint Manager server. Which service should be checked on the relay to
ensure that the relay is running?
A. BESCient
B. BES Relay
C. BES Gather
D. BES Root Server
Answer: A

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Reference:https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/wikis/home?lang=ru#!/wiki/Tiv
oli%20Endpoint%20Manager/page/BigFix%20Monitoring

NO.8 While checking the state from a recently deployed action, a user notices that it is showing as
100% complete but still in an Open state. Why?
A. The action will remain open until closed.
B. The ends on value of the action has not been reached.
C. The action will remain open until closed by a master operator.
D. The last reporting client of the action has not sent the Close action command yet.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is one reason for configuring an IBM Sametime update site?
A. Install client fixes from IBM.
B. Collect metrics on client usage.
C. Send notifications to Sametime users.
D. Automate the initial install of Sametime Connect for a user.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Kayla is an IBM Sametime client user who wants to keep a copy of all chats that take place on
her client.
Which two options describes the required settings for her to keep chat logs?
A. Kayla must select the client preference to save chat transcripts.
B. The Sametime server being used must have chat logging enabled.
C. Kayla must have a server policy that allows her to save chats transcripts.
D. Kayla must request permission from the chat partner to save chat transcripts
E. Kayla must have configured the chat transcript database in Notes to store her chats.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which server(s) are required when implementing only an IBM Sametime Community Server?
A. LDAP
B. Sametime System Console. IBM DB2
C. Sametime System Console. DB2. LDAP
D. Sametime System Console. IBM Domino. DB2
Answer: C

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NO.4 By default, the IBM Sametime System Console can be accessed using which URL?
A. https://<hostname>:8710/ibm/console
B. https://<hostname>:8701 /ibm/console
C. https://<hostname>:9043 /ibm/console
D. https://<hostname>:9443 /ibm/console
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which IBM Sametime component is required to connect with other instant messaging
communities?
A. Sametime TURN Server
B. Sametime Gateway Server
C. Sametime Advanced Server
D. Sametime Bandwidth Server
Answer: B

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NO.6 What product includes the IBM Sametime Embedded client?
A. IBM Notes
B. IBMiNotes
C. IBM Connections
D. IBM WebSphere Portal
Answer: A

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NO.7 Broadcast communities are groups of people who share what?
A. profile
B. Contacts list
C. LDAP group
D. interest in a topic or project
Answer: D

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NO.8 In which policy can the "Automatically Save Chat Transcript" be found?
A. Meetings
B. Media Services
C. SI P-based calling
D. Instant Messaging
Answer: D

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NO.1 A message flow needs to be designed such that available messages must be processed in
sequential order. Missing messages in the sequence must be discarded if they appear later. The
solution developer implements this message flow using Sequence and Resequence nodes. To
meet the specifications for this message flow, how should the solution developer wire the
Resequence node?
A. The Out, Expire, and Missing terminals should be wired together.
B. The Out terminal should be wired, but the Expire and Missing terminals should be left unwired.
C. The Out and Missing terminals should be wired together, and the Expire terminal should be left
unwired.
D. The Out and Expire terminals should be wired together, and the Missing terminal should be left
unwired.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A solution developer creates a message flow that includes an XSLTransform node. The node
property specifies that the XSL style sheet is to be cached. The solution developer deploys the
XSL style sheet in the BAR file with the message flow. Subsequently, the style sheet needs to be
revised. How does the solution developer enable the message flow to use the revised style sheet?
A. Use the mqsicacheadmin command to refresh the cache with the new style sheet.
B. Update the BAR file with the modified style sheet and redeploy it.
C. Update the style sheet in the Application Development view of the Toolkit. Once the changes
are saved, the style sheet is reloadedautomatically by any message flows that use it.
D. Update the style sheet in the directory specified by the Style sheet directory property of the
XSLTransform node. Once the changes aresaved, the style sheet is reloaded automatically by any
message flows that use it.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Set breakpoint in appropriate location

NO.4 To activate any new function included in a fix pack, which command must the solution
developer
issue?
A. mqsicvp command.
B. mqsireioad command.
C. mqsichangebroker command with the -f parameter.
D. mqsichangeproperties command with the -n parameter.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Redeploy flow
B. 1. Right click Compute node
2. Choose open ESQL
3. Set breakpoint on right hand side margin

NO.6 A sales company is currently running 2 message flows. The first, ProcessOrder, validates
customer orders and then sends the shipping information to the warehouse via an MQ request
message. Once the warehouse has shipped the order, a reply is sent back which is processed by
the second flow, SendConfirmation, to send a confirmation to the customer. The company is now
expanding and has multiple warehouses. The solution developer must modify ProcessOrder to
send messages to each warehouse only for the items it stocks, and SendConfirmation to send a
response message only when all warehouses have replied. What node(s) should the solution
developer use?
A. SendConfirmation -> MQGet
B. SendConfirmation -> Collector
C. ProcessOrder -> Sequence
SendConfirmation -> Resequence
D. ProcessOrder -> AggregateControl and AggregateRequest
SendConfirmation -> AggregateReply
Answer: D

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NO.7 A healthcare company needs to implement WS-Security integrity message signing for an
existing
web service flow that will now be handling sensitive data. Which nodes can the solution developer
use to develop this enhancement? (Choose two)
A. HTTPInput
B. HTTPRequest
C. SOAPInput
D. SOAPRequest
E. SOAPEnvelope
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 A solution developer has been informed of a problem with a message flow. Based on the error
given, the problem seems to occur in ESQL code. The solution developer determines the need to
debug the code. How does the solution developer set a breakpoint in the ESQL code?
A. 1. Right click message flow

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NO.1 You are about to apply a patch to a database. Which recommended action is incorrect?
A. You should check the patch conflict with installed patches before applying the patch.
B. You should make sure that you have a good backup of the software, database, and configuration
files.
C. You should install the latest O patch before applying the patch.
D. You should check the fifth digit of the release information to confirm that the Patch Set Update
(PSU) is applied successfully.
E. You should stop all applications running from the software directory that is being patched.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three statements are true about System Global Area (SGA)?
A. SGA contains shared memory structures for all Oracle processes running on a single server.
B. Each server process has its own SGA.
C. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is started.
D. SGA is used to speed up queries by caching data blocks, program data, information about
database objects, and query results
E. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is mounted.
F. SGA is read and written by server and background processes.
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.4 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different
release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with
different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the
Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to database
services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the database server, due
to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your customer use?
A. Oracle Data Guard
B. Oracle Streams
C. Oracle Real Application Clusters
D. Oracle GoldenGate
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/availability/maximum-availability-wp-12c1896116.p
df (page 5, Server HA: Oracle Real Application Clusters)

NO.7 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.8 In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming method
D. when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server
mode
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following services are used for network file systems? (Select TWO correct choices)
A. Rumba
B. Python
C. Samba
D. OpenLDAP
E. NFS
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 In order to rename the directory ~/bilder/letzter-urlaub to ~/bilder/sommer-2011, which
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A. mv ~/bilder/letzter-urlaub ~/bilder/sommer-2011
B. move ~/bilder/letzter-urlaub ~/bilder/sommer-2011
C. cp -m ~/bilder/letzter-urlaub ~/bilder/sommer-2011
D. copy -m ~/bilde/letzter-urlaub ~/bilder/sommer-2011
E. rename ~/bilder/letzter-urlaub ~/bilder/sommer-2011
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which command will delete the directory foo with all its content?
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B. rm -r foo
C. rm -a foo
D. rmdir foo
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NO.4 What command would you use to get comprehensive documentation about any command in
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A. help command
B. echo command
C. locate command
D. man command
E. get command
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which directory are system log files kept?
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B. /var/log/
C. /sys/log/
D. /var/log/sys/
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following applications are popular Open Source relational database systems?
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B. NoSQL
C. MySQL
D. DB/ 2
E. MongoDB
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which statement about users and user groups is correct?
A. A group can only have one main user.
B. There can be only one user group on a system.
C. User do not have to belong to a user group.
D. Every user belongs to a least one user group.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following filesystems is most commonly used for Linux distributions?
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B. ext4
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
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NO.1 What is a valid integration strategy to an existing IBM endpoint security solution when IBM
Tivoli Service Automation Manager (TSAM) is used to create an Infrastructure as a Service cloud?
A. TSAM interacts with the hypervisor to trigger the installation of end point management
capabilities in the cloud.
B. Install an agent using its software stack installation capability. The endpoint solution will handle
the rest of the interaction.
C. TSAM will provision an instance of the existing endpoint security solution so that the newly
provisioned virtual machines can be related to the endpoint management domain.
D. Define virtual machine templates that have the required software already installed. Then TSAM
will orchestrate the interaction between the virtual machines and the corresponding endpoint
security solution.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which cloud service model is most likely to use resource-based billing?
A. Platform as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the purpose of the IBM Cloud Computing Reference Architecture V3 cloud enabled
data center adoption pattern?
A. To describe how to build a virtualized data center infrastructure
B. To describe how to build an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) in a private cloud
C. To describe how to use a public IaaS from a data center
D. To describe how to prepare a data center to deliver IaaS and Platform as a Service cloud services
to consumer users
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which capability must be in place in order for a failed VM to automatically be replaced and
users avoid disruptions in service?
A. VM optimization
B. Solid state drives
C. Dynamic dashboard
D. Availability management
Answer: D

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NO.5 How can cloud computing improve service delivery?
A. By providing monthly or pay per usage billing models
B. By abstracting underlying hardware using virtualization
C. By enabling service providers to provide multi-instance solutions
D. By automating processes used to request and provision workloads
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two reasons that cloud computing is a good runtime environment for Systems of
Engagement (SQE)? (Choose two.)
A. It is a secure environment to store credit card numbers.
B. Upfront capital investment is eliminated with cloud's pay per use billing.
C. Rapid resource scaling to respond to a sudden increase in engaged customers.
D. Cloud computing industry standards simplify integration between SOE and Systems of Record.
E. The automation provided by cloud computing is the foundation for a better customer
engagement.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 How does provisioning take place in a hybrid cloud environment?
A. A rule-based workflow is usually in place which determines the best location for the workload.
B. Workloads are always provisioned on the public cloud when the private cloud is out of capacity.
C. Workloads can be provisioned anywhere as long as the monitoring data can be integrated in a
single dashboard.
D. Hybrid cloud environments have dedicated resource pools for provisioning storage and compute
for each workload.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which delivery model does the cloud consumer have little or no control over the
implementation of services?
A. Platform as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: B

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NO.1 What is one of the most common business reasons we hear from Power and System z
customers for starting Enterprise Modernization projects?
A. The need to transform IT from a cost to a value center.
B. Plan to begin developing complex systems on intelligent devices.
C. To ensure regulatory compliance through automated audit trails.
D. The need to manage and monitor their product portfolio as investments.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Clients can improve current applications by taking advantage of new architectures and
technologies. What other key IT resource can be leveraged as part of an enterprise modernization
project?
A. Reviewing challenges against client objectives to generate a list of best practices.
B. The process that helps business leaders identify industry trends.
C. The domain and systems knowledge of long time IT professionals.
D. Composite analysis testing and runtime analysis testing.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Jazz technology platform and tools can be used on projects that span different platforms
and different languages. It can be used to unify development organizations through
_______________.
A. a flexible application foundation framework
B. an integrated network infrastructure
C. a certified professional enterprise roadmap
D. a common team infrastructure and common developer toolset
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the core Rational products in the IBM Integrated Solution for System z Development
Accelerator?
A. Rational Requirements Composer, Rational Team Concert, Rational Quality Manager, Rational
Developer for System z.
B. DOORS, Rhapsody, Rational Team Concert, ISPF.
C. Rational Software Architect, ClearQuest, ClearCase, Rational Insight.
D. Rational Developer for z, Rational Team Concert, Rational Asset Analyzer, Rational Development
and Test Environment for System z.
Answer: D

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7 t 10th bulleted points)

NO.5 What Rational Products can be used together to provide a comprehensive Application
Portfolio Management solution?
A. Rational Team Concert, Rational Software Architect, and Rational Focal Point.
B. Rational Rhapsody, Rational Developer for z, and Rational Insight.
C. Rational Focal Point, Rational Asset Analyzer and Rational System Architect.
D. Rational Quality Manager, Rational Team Concert, and Rational Requirements Composer.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is purpose of the Assist on Site (AOS) tool?
A. It is a remote tool by which a BackEnd engineer can contact their customer.
B. It is a remote tool by which IBM Learning Services can perform remote education for a customer.
C. It is a remote tool by which a technical support engineer can contact another peer for problem
analysis.
D. It is a live remote-assistance tool by which a technical support engineer can assist a customer in
problem resolution.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which guidelines must be followed when a FrontEnd engineer transfers a PMR to the BackEnd?
A. FastPath guidelines
B. OneTeam guidelines
C. guidelines on Product Support page
D. guidelines onw3.ibm.com/oneteam
Answer: B

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NO.3 When working on aOneTeam PMR, how does a FrontEnd engineer show that they have
primary responsibility for the PMR from the beginning to the end?
A. Taking Ownership and marking this in the Owner field of the PMR.
B. Taking Ownership and marking this in the Keyword 1 field of the PMR.
C. Write their name in the PMR text and explain that they are responsible for this PMR.
D. Enter their name in the Resolver field of the PMR and demonstrate responsibility for resolution.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the Owner ID field in aOneTeam PMR?
A. clearly identifies the BackEnd (BE) PMR owner
B. identify APAR number
C. clearly identifies the FrontEnd PMR owner
D. allow BE to find customer contract number
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer with a Passport Advantage contract has opened a Severityl PMR.
What is the responsiveness target for this PMR?
A. within one hour
B. within two hours
C. within five hours
D. the best endeavors
Answer: B

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NO.6 What should be done to ensure good communication inside the Front End teams and for Front
End to Back End communications?
A. Make sure, all people have your mobile phone number, to contact you any time.
B. Make sure that Bluepages is always up to date with current contact information.
C. As soon as you are in the office, make sure that you tell everyone you are available now.
D. Before transferring a PMR to theBack Endalways check with your development contact, whether
it is ok.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which role gives a user or group access to Filters/Views and Tool creation?
A. ncw_user
B. iscadmins
C. ncw_admin
D. configurator
Answer: C

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NO.2 In Web GUI. what is the effect of clicking the Show Assigned Filters radio button in the Edit
Event Dashboard Preferences screen?
A. It displays only user assigned filters on the Event dashboard.
B. It displays global and user assigned filters only on the Event dashboard.
C. It displays global, system, and user assigned filters only on the Event dashboard.
D. It displays all filters including global, system, group, and user assigned filters on the Event
dashboard.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which command brings up the Event List in Windows?
A. isql.bat
B. NCOEvent.exe
C. NCODesktop.exe
D. NCOConductor.exe
Answer: B

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NO.4 The first name value pair in a transformation designates which value?
A. source page
B. target portlet
C. target event name
D. source event name
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which Web GUI portlet allows grouping of events by fields?
A. Event Viewer
B. Java Event List
C. Event Presenter
D. Active Event List
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are the correct steps to open a Map Creation editor?
A. Administration > Event Management Tools > Maps > Map Creation > select editor type and click
New
B. Administration > Event Management Tools > Maps > Map Resources > select editor type and click
Add
C. Administration > Event Management Tools > Example Maps > Map Creation > select editor type
and click New
D. Administration > Event Management Tools > Example Maps > Map Resources > select editor type
and click Add
Answer: A

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NO.7 Using the native event list client, how are events filtered for a particular severity?
A. right click the event list and select Filter>Severity
B. click View > View By Severity, select the severity required
C. click Alerts > Sort By Severity, select the severity required
D. click the required severity color on the event list distribution status bar
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Web GUI component can be used to modify (acknowledge, delete) events in the
ObjectSetver?
A. Event Viewer
B. Java Event List
C. Active Event List
D. Lightweight Event List
Answer: A

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